I sing at weddings sometimes and this weekend I was given a version of psalm 128 by Marty Haugen that is pretty heavily paraphrased. The end of the third verse seems to be something he just made up and isn’t anywhere in the psalm. This would be against the USCCB’s instruction to use only approved translations in the Liturgy of the Word, correct? I was talking to my voice instructor who works for the church and she was the one who brought it to my attention. Is there such a regulation about paraphrasing? And if there is, do I have a moral obligation to not sing this psalm, since it would be against the wishes of the bishop? The presider of the wedding Mass it would be used at seems to have approved but I do not wish to contradict the bishops.
The archdiocese has a director of liturgy and sacraments. You might just contact them for guidance. In the meantime, you could also find a more faithful rendering of the Psalm and present that as being without question or concern.
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