M
MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes!
Is God or is God not the “author of confusion”?
In Genesis, we are told that God Himself said, “Let us go down and confuse their languages…” (some translations have “confound”) in the context of the Tower of Babel.
However, in the New Testament, we are told that God “is not hte author of confusion”.
So, how do we reconcile these passages?
Is God or is God not the “author of confusion”?
Was it actually not God but the devil who caused the “confusion” of languages, even though the text seems to attribute this to God? “Let US **go down/b…” To me, the “go down” part even goes further to signify that it was God Himself who confounded the languages, in a very active way. (This is assuming that the Babel story is to be taken literally.) If God were passively allowing the confusion of languages through the devil or some other means, I would suggest that “going down” (to actively participate in this confusion) would not have been used as a phrase here.
Of course, there is, I suppose, the possibility that “Us” here is not referring to God Triune but to God and His angels, both good and bad(?), and, thus, could have included satan, though, as I understand it, the “Us” has traditionally been taken as the former – the Triune God. In fact, why would the devil fret about men becoming “like Us” (like God)? Wouldn’t he, in fact, want this to happen so as to destroy God’s good plans for us?
So, again, is God or is God not the “author of confusion”?
Or, perhaps the terms “confusion” mean different things in these two contexts? Perhaps, in the NT context, “confusion” means more “disorder” and, in the OT Genesis passage, “confusion” means more a mixing up, say, of sounds that signify things? After all, even though the sounds (and perhaps even the grammar) may have changed, languages still have their own very precise order. They are not entirely confused. People who spoke their own language group after the confusion were still able to understand one another. Also, words for things are mere signifiers and are not objectively in any real/essential way connected to the objects themselves, so, God’s changing of the words for things is, arguably, not “misnaming” these things but simply “changing” their names in a subjective way.
However, perhaps God is disrupting the original “order” of language, so, could we still technically consider this “disordered confusion”? So, then, if God is not the author of confusion, we would be forced to say that, in the Babel passage, the author is someone other than God, either the devil or some natural, Providentially sent/allowed, phenomenon.
Thoughts?
Gratias.**
Is God or is God not the “author of confusion”?
In Genesis, we are told that God Himself said, “Let us go down and confuse their languages…” (some translations have “confound”) in the context of the Tower of Babel.
However, in the New Testament, we are told that God “is not hte author of confusion”.
So, how do we reconcile these passages?
Is God or is God not the “author of confusion”?
Was it actually not God but the devil who caused the “confusion” of languages, even though the text seems to attribute this to God? “Let US **go down/b…” To me, the “go down” part even goes further to signify that it was God Himself who confounded the languages, in a very active way. (This is assuming that the Babel story is to be taken literally.) If God were passively allowing the confusion of languages through the devil or some other means, I would suggest that “going down” (to actively participate in this confusion) would not have been used as a phrase here.
Of course, there is, I suppose, the possibility that “Us” here is not referring to God Triune but to God and His angels, both good and bad(?), and, thus, could have included satan, though, as I understand it, the “Us” has traditionally been taken as the former – the Triune God. In fact, why would the devil fret about men becoming “like Us” (like God)? Wouldn’t he, in fact, want this to happen so as to destroy God’s good plans for us?
So, again, is God or is God not the “author of confusion”?
Or, perhaps the terms “confusion” mean different things in these two contexts? Perhaps, in the NT context, “confusion” means more “disorder” and, in the OT Genesis passage, “confusion” means more a mixing up, say, of sounds that signify things? After all, even though the sounds (and perhaps even the grammar) may have changed, languages still have their own very precise order. They are not entirely confused. People who spoke their own language group after the confusion were still able to understand one another. Also, words for things are mere signifiers and are not objectively in any real/essential way connected to the objects themselves, so, God’s changing of the words for things is, arguably, not “misnaming” these things but simply “changing” their names in a subjective way.
However, perhaps God is disrupting the original “order” of language, so, could we still technically consider this “disordered confusion”? So, then, if God is not the author of confusion, we would be forced to say that, in the Babel passage, the author is someone other than God, either the devil or some natural, Providentially sent/allowed, phenomenon.
Thoughts?
Gratias.**