H
Has_A_Question
Guest
I did some skimming of this forum and could not find an answer that fully answer the question for me, so if I missed something I apologize.
My question has to do with the following passage:
“Now it came about at midnight that the LORD struck all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh who sat on his throne to the firstborn of the captive who was in the dungeon, and all the firstborn of cattle.” Exodus 12:29
I can understand the justice in the punishment of sinners throughout the Old Testament, but why exactly are the firstborn being punished for a sin that is not their own. Also, it seems to me that at least some of these first born had to be innocent and it leads me to the question of why didn’t God just punish the sinful firstborn?
Thanks in advance.
My question has to do with the following passage:
“Now it came about at midnight that the LORD struck all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh who sat on his throne to the firstborn of the captive who was in the dungeon, and all the firstborn of cattle.” Exodus 12:29
I can understand the justice in the punishment of sinners throughout the Old Testament, but why exactly are the firstborn being punished for a sin that is not their own. Also, it seems to me that at least some of these first born had to be innocent and it leads me to the question of why didn’t God just punish the sinful firstborn?
Thanks in advance.