Infidelity as grounds for annulment?

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DiscerningTheTruth

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My sister recently learned her husband has been habitually unfaithful through her throughout the duration of their marriage, as well as before, during their engagement. She is hoping to obtain an annulment through the Church. Is infidelity considered sufficient grounds for a marriage to be annulled?
 
Infidelity BEFORE the marriage is grounds for an annulment from what I understand.So your sister did not know that her husband was cheating before the wedding day?
 
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It would be best for her to speak with the person involved with the annulment process
at her parish to discuss these events in her marriage and before the marriage.
 
Since the husband was lying and cheating before the wedding day then yes, that is grounds for an annulment. Your sister should first and foremost meet with an orthodox priest.

My question, if you dont mind me asking on this thread, is what if the sister and the husband want to work things out, the husband repents and stops his infidelity, or the sister still wants to be married to him despite the continuing infidelity. Would the marriage be null in the eyes of God, or SHOULD they seek an annulment, or can they remain married despite the awefull acts of the husband cheating before they were married?
 
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LittleFlower378 said:
Since the husband was lying and cheating before the wedding day then yes, that is grounds for an annulment.
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Unless you are a Canon Layer and on the Tribunal, you cannot give someone this assurance.

In and of itself, infidelity is not a valid grounds (see linked article with the Canons). Infidelity may be a sign of another impediment, but, that is something only the Tribunal can tell.
 
TheLittleLady said:
Unless you are a Canon Layer and on the Tribunal, you cannot give someone this assurance.
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I can say it is grounds because he was lying. Servant of God, Fr.John Hardon SJ gives this same example as the OP as being an impediment. Whether or not its from the infidelity or the lying, Im not sure, but I believe it was because of the lying. The husband told the sister he was something that he was not before they got married. He was living a lie.
 
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TheLittleLady said:
Fr Hardon gave his opinion. His word is good, not Gospel.
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Im not giving this person anything set in stone, that for the sister and the husband to work out, but I can say that lying and cheating before the marriage is objectively an impediment. Fr.Hardon is not just giving his opinion but stating what Canon Law says.
 
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A technical comment or two that does not touch upon the OP (which I do not want to address).

A given marriage can be invalid due to one or more causes. The causes can be grouped under three headings: consent, impediments, and form. If a person’s marital consent is not, in fact, marital, then there is no marriage (e.g., a young woman is forced into marriage by her parents). If a person is impeded from contracting marriage, the act of consent can be sufficient and yet there will be no marriage (e.g., a man tries to marry his own sister). Finally, a person can have proper consent and not be impeded but might express consent in an inadequate manner (e.g., a Catholic does not marry “in the Church”). Somebody could appear to marry but the marriage would be invalid due to causes in each heading (such as, a Catholic attempts marriage before a civil judge, with a divorced woman, and he excludes the very notion of having children with her).

An impediment is a fact that, according to the law, makes a person unable to marry in all or particular circumstances. There is no legal impediment concerning lying/infidelity. A person’s marital consent can be eliminated because of deceit or an exclusion of the good of fidelity but these are issues of consent, not legal capacity.

Dan
 
If she can demonstrate that her husband never had any intention of honouring the marriage vows then as I understand it, she would have a solid case.

The only way to find out is to approach your priest and discuss the matter.
 
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