H
Huiou_Theou
Guest
So, if I am hearing you right – “embrace” – means to “bring humanity with”.I think it can be understood in light of the previous sentence: “No man, not even the holiest, was ever able to take on himself the sins of all men and offer himself as a sacrifice for all.” He is the greatest human who brings humanity with him when he reverses man’s futile condition of Adam.
I like that; but something in the discussion is extremely elusive.
There are, listed in the paragraph you quoted, two main ideas (but replicated) given as the reason for sacrifice;* “redemption and reparation, as atonement and satisfaction.”*
Oddly, none of these ideas are directly attributable to the (contingent) necessity of the incarnation; eg: Jesus says – “Father if it be possible; LET this cup pass from me.” and even after Jesus makes this command, the request is not honored showing that the “if” is false; because the human mind by itself does not know all that God does – and, therefore, in order to do the right thing in the face of inevitable ignorance; one must always appeal to him who is the “all” in “every-thing”.
The entire section on the CCC is infused with references to the Eucharist; and to this day – the Eucharist is substantially an incarnation; yet the passage quoted seems to focus on a legalistic reasoning for the necessity of the cross. I know it’s a mistake to say God must be repaid for every single sin – for the mercy of the Immaculate conception is precisely the answer to such a heartless/wrathful God of infinite need of vindication.
But – In Hebrews, without qualification, the author states that it is impossible that “the blood of” (animals) …“should take away sins”. And, in a merely legal sense, I am confronted with the rhetorical question ‘Are not animals “wealth” that they should have every ability in “paying” for something? (as would any other currency)?’
Yet, the passage in Isaiah which says ‘sin offering you did not desire’ – also says “a body” (soma & soul) you have prepared for me. (LO! I come to do your will!)
Isaiah does not say, “my spirit” alone – but “a body”. All animals and even man have bodies; and as the CCC says (clearly correct) that if not even the “holiest” man COULD take all the sins of all men upon himself; But then – the very attempt/notion – leads me to ask “why?”; and yet, there is no answer spelled out clearly in that passage of the CCC and careful consideration leads to a stalemate of simple logic of God’s bigness being the “Reason”…
The holiest of men had a human will and spirit; They also had the Holy Spirit whom spoke through them and informed them. Thus, they have a union of God and Man – although not a hypostatic one; none the less, the Spirit was present and so is a union. What, then, is the all important difference found in the incarnation?
The same kinds of questions can be applied to Adam in the Fall which lead to the “sin” of all man. The arguments of Job can be brought to bear (!!! what am I that I could possibly hurt YOU? !!!). How is Adam (esp in light of evolution) the “head” of all humanity such that his sin affects us all?
I don’t think we (as Catholics) have sufficiently addressed /clarified these questions (and somewhere in the CCC, I think, they are called mysteries). The very need to discuss the eternal fate of infants who die without baptism (sacramental) in terms of hope indicates that we don’t “SEE” the answer clearly.
The CCC is stuck, primarily, in a paradigm of cost and purchase/ re-purchase; but this paradigm has little explanatory power about the reason why God needed to prepare a “body”. (Isaiah, if he obeys – he will have a long line eg: children!)
It doesn’t even seem to notice that Genesis teaches the bringing into existence of a wife is through the sacrifice of the man’s body; eg: a woman who could not be “born” of a man, but who could be formed out of a man.
The original plan of reproduction of man was not restricted to sexual reproduction; For God directly entered into the sinless formation of the first human re-generation in a different way. But there is no hint of God entering into any other human reproduction (save as the Nazirites like Sampson, and John the Baptist – but not to the same degree) until the fullness of time wherein the purpose was the incarnation.
The OP is, perhaps, indirectly targeting the question of what Original sin is; so that we may discuss what its’ reversal (Chiasmus) is.
Facilely, St. Luke lists a Genealogy that Starts with Jesus Christ and Ends with Adam (Son of God.). So that we know a reversal is meant – but it isn’t obvious how such a reversal exists in terms of cause and effect and science. If his cross causes this Genealogy – I notice the genealogy does not include members such as “Cain”; nor is there hint that “all” men means anything more than those who were not wicked and to whom carried the promise from “the beginning”.
But, Judas was among the twelve, and yet not even he stayed for the last supper’s completion. It is precisely here – how did Jesus die for Judas – that the question of what it means that Jesus died for all men’s sins becomes urgent. In what way does Jesus die for Judas? Is it the same as he did for me or you, or Adam?