1 Timothy 2

[Emeraldragon]

I desire, then, that in every place the men should pray, lifting up holy hands without anger or argument; also that the women should dress themselves modestly and decently in suitable clothing, not with their hair braided, or with gold, pearls, or expensive clothes, but with good works, as is proper for women who profess reverence for God. Let a woman learn in silence with full submission. I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she is to keep silent. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor. Yet she will be saved through childbearing, provided they continue in faith and love and holiness, with modesty.

An Atheist recently confronted me with this Scripture passage along with a couple others, and said, “Either God is not real or our morals are completely wrong. The fact that God advocated sexism, even if He doesn’t today, doesn’t sound appropriate for an all-knowing Being.”

And he’s right. God shouldn’t advocate sexism. In fact, I’m 100% sure He’s not in this passage.

I’m no Biblical scholar, and I don’t know what to tell him. I read this passage with little thought. He reads it with the thought that God is sexist, which of course isn’t true. How do I convince him that he misunderstands the reading? How do I know that I DO understand the reading?

I want to think long and hard about this reading and what it could mean. I also want to hear others’ opinions on it and take them into consideration. I just want a little help “decoding” this reading.

My thoughts are:

The passage still states that woman can be saved. And I know for a fact that every person is created in God’s Own Image and Likeness, and since He is perfect, He could not be sexist. This is a reading from St. Paul, but if it is Divinely Inspired, then how do you explain it?

Oh well. Maybe everyone can help me sort this out. I’ll never lose my faith in God, and I know there’s an answer here somewhere. I just need a little help finding it.

Thanks in advance and God bless,

~Emeraldragon

 

[thistle]

D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Ver. 12. St. Paul only means in public. See note on ver. 11. of the next chapter. It would appear from this regulation of the apostle, as well as from the writings of the earliest fathers, that the practice and condemnation of women interfering at all in spiritual affairs, in not new. Tertullian says: We do not permit a woman to teach, to baptize, or to arrogate to herself any part of the duty which belongs to man. (De Veland. Virg. cap. 9.) — The woman has tried once to teach, when she persuaded Adam to eat the forbidden fruit, and has wofully failed. Let her now be content to remain in silence, and subjection to man; (St. Chrysostom on this place) as appears also from the order of the creation. See ver. 13. Seduction began with Eve, a subject of profound humiliation for women; but this ought not to deprive them of confidence in God’s mercy, nor take from them the hope of salvation. (Bible de Vence)

Ver. 13-14. Adam was first formed…and was not seduced. That is, was not at least seduced first, as the woman. (Witham)

Ver. 15. She shall be saved by bearing children, &c. and performing other duties of a wife, with a due submission to her husband, taking care to serve God, and bring up her children in the faith of Christ, in piety, &c. (Witham) — This would perhaps be more properly rendered, from the Greek, by the bringing up of her children in faith, charity, and holiness. This is the duty of the woman; upon the faithful discharge or neglect of which she must expect her salvation, or reprobation, to hang. Thus repairing the evil which the first of all women brought upon man, by seducing him to evil. (Bible de Vence)