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datritle
Guest
To fulfil his obligation to pray the breviary, must a priest pray all the 1962 hours…or just matins, lauds, one daytime hour, vespers and compline?
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B
bben15
Guest
Technically, it’s the 1961 breviary. 
Yes, if a priest chooses to use the 1961 breviary, he must pray all hours.
Yes, if a priest chooses to use the 1961 breviary, he must pray all hours.
Why? If a diocesan priest is bound to only Morning Prayer, Evening Prayer, the Office of Readings and only one Daytime Prayer, then there is no reason in the law that the 1961 Office in itself should bind more than the Liturgy of the Hours. Another key example is Prime, which was suppressed by Vatican II and binds no diocesan priest. Why then should he have to pray Prime out of obligation just because he uses the 1961 Breviary?Technically, it’s the 1961 breviary.
Yes, if a priest chooses to use the 1961 breviary, he must pray all hours.
This does not apply to societies like the FSSP, who are bound to all hours by their constitution.
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Oneofthewomen
Guest
In the US, a diocesan priest is only obligated to pray Lauds & Vespers.
My question is does the older breviary fulfill the obligation? It would seem to me that it would not, because it is “extra-ordinary”, and as Br. JR has said many times, that which is extra-ordinary cannot be made ordinary. The Divine Office is a liturgy of the Church, so I would think that the obligation could be filled only by reciting the current edition.
At least that makes sense to me. And that’s not to say a priest could not pray the older version as a personal devotion in addition to, if he so chooses.
My question is does the older breviary fulfill the obligation? It would seem to me that it would not, because it is “extra-ordinary”, and as Br. JR has said many times, that which is extra-ordinary cannot be made ordinary. The Divine Office is a liturgy of the Church, so I would think that the obligation could be filled only by reciting the current edition.
At least that makes sense to me. And that’s not to say a priest could not pray the older version as a personal devotion in addition to, if he so chooses.
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datritle
Guest
Incorrect. It does fulfil the obligation. And I am positive you are incorrect about lauds and vespers. he must also pray office of readings, or matins, one daytime hour, and compline.In the US, diocesan priest is only obligated to pray Lauds & Vespers.
My question is does the older missal fulfill the obligation? It would seem to me that it would not, because it is “extra-ordinary”, and as Br. JR has said many times, that which is extra-ordinary cannot be made ordinary. The Divine Office is a liturgy of the Church, so I would think that the obligation could be filled only by reciting the current edition.
At least that makes sense to me. And that’s not to say a priest could not pray the older version as a personal devotion in addition to, if he so chooses.
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Oneofthewomen
Guest
I got my answer to the obligation question from my boss, who is a priest and Canon lawyer, and it’s the same thing Br. Jay says here.
As to the other part I am ASKING question. I have talked about this with a couple of different people, and have received many conflicting answers. I would be interested in seeing some documentation to support your claim.
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datritle
Guest
I am a seminarian. I learned it at seminary. Check Fr. Z’s blog. he has had MANY blog posts about this.
wdtprs.com/blog/2010/06/quaeritur-clerics-fulfilling-office-obligation-with-older-office-in-vernacular/
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Oneofthewomen
Guest
I don’t look at Fr. Z as an authoritative source, but thank you for the link.
Since my questions are purely out of curiosity, and I have no “horse in this race”, I will bow out of this thread now.
Since my questions are purely out of curiosity, and I have no “horse in this race”, I will bow out of this thread now.
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O_Sapientia
Guest
My question is does the older breviary fulfill the obligation? It would seem to me that it would not, because it is “extra-ordinary”, and as Br. JR has said many times, that which is extra-ordinary cannot be made ordinary. The Divine Office is a liturgy of the Church, so I would think that the obligation could be filled only by reciting the current edition.
At least that makes sense to me. And that’s not to say a priest could not pray the older version as a personal devotion in addition to, if he so chooses.
UE said:
translation said:
All secular Roman Rite priests have competency to recite the 1962 Divine Office and they are to both pray in the liturgical language of Latin and are bound to recite the Office whole and entire to fulfill their obligation. There are various uses of the Divine Office and the public prayer of the Church is not limited to the Ordinary Form of the Roman Rite. Any priest that recites the Divine Office according to the norms and rubrics of the 1961 typical edition do perform a liturgical act and it is not a mere private devotion.
The matter is more complicated for those in religious promises and vows.
Yours in Jesus and Mary,
OS.
O
Oneofthewomen
Guest
Thank you! 
Since Summorum Pontificum, diocesan clergy are able to fulfill their obligation with the 1961 Breviary. Religious and those in institutes/societies are bound by their constitutions. However, what hours diocesan clergy are bound to are determined by their local Ordinaries and/or the bishops’ conference. They are not determined by the edition of breviary they use.In the US, a diocesan priest is only obligated to pray Lauds & Vespers.
My question is does the older breviary fulfill the obligation? It would seem to me that it would not, because it is “extra-ordinary”, and as Br. JR has said many times, that which is extra-ordinary cannot be made ordinary. The Divine Office is a liturgy of the Church, so I would think that the obligation could be filled only by reciting the current edition.
At least that makes sense to me. And that’s not to say a priest could not pray the older version as a personal devotion in addition to, if he so chooses.
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