2 Tim. 2:25,26

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2 Tim. 2:25,26 in the RSC CE reads: 25correcting his opponents with gentleness. God may perhaps grant that they will repent and come to know the truth,26 and they may escape from the snare of the devil, after being captured by him to do his will.

The Companion Bible at this verse says (my paraphrase) that after being captured in the devils snare one can repent and do God’s will.

I also get this meaning from the ICSB NT that his will is actually God’s will.

My friend’s interpretation is that “his will” means the will of the devil.

Bibles that I can access on line render this verse differently: so some can be understood as his will meaning either God’s or the devils.

Is there anyone out their with insight into this scripture? I have also looked into the Haydock commentary which leads me to believe that his will is the devils will.
I am a little confused here.
Thanks for your help
Jeanne
 
Greek grammar can be rather vague by modern standards. Essentially, the options you mention are:
A person is trapped by the devil and acting according to the devil’s will.
By correcting that person, he may repent and be freed from the devil.
A person is trapped by the devil.
By correcting that person, he may repent and be freed from the devil.
That person is then able to act according to God’s will.

Both interpretations are valid, I am sure. The devil’s will basically consists of leading a soul outside of God’s will.
 
Instead of focussing so intently on those two verses I would read on from about verse 22 for context. From what I see I’d make the following observations.
  1. Those verses are about the “servant of the Lord” instructing and correcting any that oppose him.
  2. It is hoped that this instruction and correction will lead that person to see the error of their ways and repent and ask for God’s mercy.
  3. “captive to do his will” I think like you suggest is somebody doing what the devil wants – not necessarily possessed but leading a sinful and Godless lifestyle.
ChadS
 
2 Tim. 2:25,26 in the RSC CE reads: 25correcting his opponents with gentleness. God may perhaps grant that they will repent and come to know the truth,26 and they may escape from the snare of the devil, after being captured by him to do his will.

The Companion Bible at this verse says (my paraphrase) that after being captured in the devils snare one can repent and do God’s will.

I also get this meaning from the ICSB NT that his will is actually God’s will.

My friend’s interpretation is that “his will” means the will of the devil.

Bibles that I can access on line render this verse differently: so some can be understood as his will meaning either God’s or the devils.

Is there anyone out their with insight into this scripture? I have also looked into the Haydock commentary which leads me to believe that his will is the devils will.
I am a little confused here.
Thanks for your help
Jeanne
"and they will come to their senses and escape the devil’s trap where they are held captive to do his will. 2 NET

NET notes
2 tn Grk “for that one’s will,” referring to the devil, but with a different pronoun than in the previous phrase “by him.” Some have construed “for his will” with the earlier verb and referred the pronoun to God: “come to their senses and escape the devil’s trap (though they have been captured by him) in order to do His will.” In Classical Greek the shift in pronouns would suggest this, but in Koine Greek this change is not significant. The more natural sense is a reference to the devil’s will.

net.bible.org/verse.php?book=2Ti&chapter=2&verse=26
 
"and they will come to their senses and escape the devil’s trap where they are held captive to do his will. 2 NET

NET notes
2 tn Grk “for that one’s will,” referring to the devil, but with a different pronoun than in the previous phrase “by him.” Some have construed “for his will” with the earlier verb and referred the pronoun to God: “come to their senses and escape the devil’s trap (though they have been captured by him) in order to do His will.” In Classical Greek the shift in pronouns would suggest this, but in Koine Greek this change is not significant. The more natural sense is a reference to the devil’s will.
net.bible.org/verse.php?book=2Ti&chapter=2&verse=26
Yes, this is the interpretation that my friend uses.
In The Ignatius Catholic Study Bible note on the very bottom of the page says that it is God’s will. So several interpreters say different things. The DRB infers that it is the devils will. So I have 2 reliable bibles saying 2 different things and I still don’t know which is true and does it matter?

Jeanne
 
Yes, this is the interpretation that my friend uses.
In The Ignatius Catholic Study Bible note on the very bottom of the page says that it is God’s will. So several interpreters say different things. The DRB infers that it is the devils will. So I have 2 reliable bibles saying 2 different things and I still don’t know which is true and does it matter?

Jeanne
you know, I thought I understood this verse but then I read the note from the companion Bible and got a bit confused. :D. Here’s the way I read 24-26:

Those ‘that oppose themselves’ (vs25) are those who are ensnared by the devil to do the devil’s will. They haven’t gotten repentance from God yet which might come about by the instruction of the ‘servant of the Lord’.

the devil’s will is for those ‘who oppose themselves’ is to get into and remain in, for example, ‘vain babblings’ (vs16), ‘iniquity’ (vs19) ‘youthful lusts’ (vs22). Whereas God’s will is to give them repentance from these things.

It’s all in the way a person assigns antecedents to pronouns. Bullinger in the Comp Bible and Ignatius notes assign them differently than the NAB & NET notes. I think the latter two have got it right (opinion) and most of the translations below support that. I don’t have an Ignatius Bible so I can’t read their note.

With respect to Bibles Catholics use ,
Ignatius: God’s will
DRB: devil’s will
NAB: devil’s will
RSV: devil’s will
NRSV: devil’s will

by Companion you mean Bullinger’s Comp. Bible?
1920’s a bit dated
NAB and NET notes/bible more recent

“and that they may return to their senses out of the devil’s snare, where they are entrapped by him, for his will.”
NAB (below is the note from NAB)
Some interpreters would render this passage, “Thus they may come to their senses and, forced to do his (i.e., God’s) will, may escape the devil’s trap.” This interpretation of the Greek is possible, but the one accepted in the text seems more likely.

and that they may escape from the snare of the devil, having been held captive by him to do his will.
NRSV

and they may escape from the snare of the devil, after being captured by him to do his will.
RSV

And they may recover themselves from the snares of the devil, by whom they are held captive at his will.
DRB​

and that they may awake up out of the snare of the devil, who are taken by him, for his will.
DARBY

and they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him unto his will.
ASV

and that they may recover themselves out pof the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will.
AV 1873

and they may come to their senses and escape from the snare of the devil, after being captured by him to do his will.
ESV

Then they may come to their senses and escape the Devil’s trap, having been captured by him to do his will.
HCSB

so that they might escape from the devil’s snare, even though they’ve been held captive by him to do his will.
ISV

And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will.
KJV

and they will come to their senses and escape the devil’s trap where they are held captive to do his will.
NET

and they may come to their senses and escape from athe snare of the devil, having been bheld captive by him to do his will.
NASB95

and that they will come to their senses and escape from the trap of the devil, who has taken them captive to do his will.
NIV

and that they may come to their senses and iescape the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him to do his will.
NKJV

and that they will come to their senses and escape from the trap of the devil, who has taken them captive to do his will.
TNIV

and they may awake out of the devil’s snare, having been caught by him at his will.
YLT
 
καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν
ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος,
ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ
εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα.

and they may recover themselves
out of the snare of the devil,
having been taken captive by him
unto his will.

the 'blue ’ personal pronoun’s (autou/him) antecedent is clearcly diabolos/devil,
the question is what is the antecedent of the ‘red’ demonstative pronoun ekeinou/that-one (translated to his). literally it would be

"having been taken captive by him (devil) to do that-one’s (devil) will.

Bullinger in the Comp Bible says
“The pronouns ‘him’ and ‘his’ have not the same ref. The first refers to the servant, the second to God.”

“have not the same ref” is just Bullinger’s opinion. Most translators would say that they ‘have the same ref’.
 
καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν
ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος,
ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ
εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα.

and they may recover themselves
out of the snare of the devil,
having been taken captive by him
unto his will.

the 'blue ’ personal pronoun’s (autou/him) antecedent is clearcly diabolos/devil,
the question is what is the antecedent of the ‘red’ demonstative pronoun ekeinou/that-one (translated to his). literally it would be

"having been taken captive by him (devil) to do that-one’s (devil) will.

Bullinger in the Comp Bible says
“The pronouns ‘him’ and ‘his’ have not the same ref. The first refers to the servant, the second to God.”

“have not the same ref” is just Bullinger’s opinion. Most translators would say that they ‘have the same ref’.
I guess I am just stuck on this. But I would think that most if not all interpretations are some translators opinion.

So from the consensus of “opinion” it should read “devils will”. HUMM

Jeanne
 
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