2 Tim 3:16 - what Scriptures are included in "ALL"

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He was referring to the Septuagint Old Testament, since New Testament was not canonized yet. However, the principle applies to all books that are in the Bible.
Agreed that the principle applies to all of the book in the canon. Also I agree with you that he was referring to the Septuagint as that is most likely what Timothy had had since childhood and what the Apostle to the Gentiles would have been using in most of his travels etc.

Peace
James
 
What Paul meant when he wrote it, and what the Holy Spirit intended when inspiring Paul’s hand while he wrote is obviously what is canonical to the Christian reader at the time. More than likely Paul meant what was Apostolically canonical at his time which was the Old Testament and maybe some New Testament writings that may have been circulated then, but now, since the same Holy Spirit who inspired Paul in that letter is the same that guided the Church to determine the canon that we have today, then that passage with "all"applies to our Bible for us.
In my view, this passage has nothing to do with the Canon of Scripture - what book should be in the Bible and what books shouldn’t, what books are inspired and what books are not, what future books are inspired. whether or not the Greek Septuagint was inspired etc. etc.

One verse in a chapter does not tell us a lot. In fact use of the word ‘all’ may have absolutely no relevance to what the Holy Spirit was inspiring Paul to teach, and we should not rely on one word in a passage of scripture as basis for a teaching or belief. As far as I understand this chapter in Timothy, Paul is talking about false teaching and is encouraging Timothy to look to scripture in order to ascertain what is true because it is inspired, Timothy knows the scriptures, and scripture will confirm what Paul has taught him. NT writers, eg. John’s epistles often mention false teachings due to the situation at the time. The word ‘all’ could be omitted from this passage and it would still have the same meaning.
 
In my view, this passage has nothing to do with the Canon of Scripture - what book should be in the Bible and what books shouldn’t, what books are inspired and what books are not, what future books are inspired. whether or not the Greek Septuagint was inspired etc. etc…
But the writings included in the Canon aren’t included because they are the only ones considered inspired. A lot of the Council and many Bishops wanted to include the St Clement writings. In the end, they decided to limit the Canon to certain of the OT writings and those writings that came from Apostles or from “Apostolic times” as I was taught.

We have a whole long history of writings from inspired sources, but the Canon was declared to serve a specific purpose, not to be exclusive of other works, but so that we have a “rule against which to measure.”

James made a very important observation when he pointed out that Paul is hardly referring to things that had not yet been written.
 
So what does one do with the fact that there are at least 4 different OT canons in circulation? The protestants have the smallest - and (I think) the Ethiopians have the largest.
Was it the intent of the early councils that the Bible contain ALL inspired books?
It would seem not since there was no fight or schism over the variations in the canon between East and West.

Don’t get me wrong - I am perfectly content with both the Canon of the Bible (RC) and with Church teaching. I was just curious on the subject because as we all know - we run into this verse in conversation with our non-catholic christian brothers and sisters.

It seems pretty obvious that, even though there may not be a lot of scholarly consensus on the matter, that there is enough evidence to shoot down the protestant assertions (usually used by KJV only types)

Peace
James
I’m sorry maybe we got off on the wrong foot here but I thought I gave a very profound Deep answer to these questions. It is the Christ that matters. All scripture has a human author but its the Word who speaks with His own voice through them. because of this all scripture that is recognized as inspired has as its subject God himself and therefore is seamless in its assertions having no contradictions in it. But no body read my post so I guess you did not notice that what the Pope was generally saying is that in this kind of discussion where we take one phrase and search for its historical roots outside of what we know about the rest of scripture, removed from the context of the faith and the greater bible, you loss the plot a little. In a way you miss the point by changing the subject. The subject of the bible and theology is and should be God. Not the various authors and there little times in history but how what they wrote applies to God and his relationship with You. Read the Popes words again just a few posts up they are profound. He said it better than I could have.
 
In my view, this passage has nothing to do with the Canon of Scripture - what book should be in the Bible and what books shouldn’t, what books are inspired and what books are not, what future books are inspired. whether or not the Greek Septuagint was inspired etc. etc.

One verse in a chapter does not tell us a lot. In fact use of the word ‘all’ may have absolutely no relevance to what the Holy Spirit was inspiring Paul to teach, and we should not rely on one word in a passage of scripture as basis for a teaching or belief. As far as I understand this chapter in Timothy, Paul is talking about false teaching and is encouraging Timothy to look to scripture in order to ascertain what is true because it is inspired, Timothy knows the scriptures, and scripture will confirm what Paul has taught him. NT writers, eg. John’s epistles often mention false teachings due to the situation at the time. The word ‘all’ could be omitted from this passage and it would still have the same meaning.
I agree that Paul is not making this into a canonical issue, as I reread my post I do sound as if that is what I meant. My point that I was aiming at was that the Scriptures as Paul was referring to does not bind us in any way to what was canonical to him at that time because the canon was to be worked out as time went on. And I doubt that he had a defined standardized canon in the sense that we think of today, otherwise we would have had a definition given by the Apostles. My point is that, what Paul had in mind as “all scripture”, and what the Holy Spirit had in mind, was not a list. But I do believe that Paul had in mind a body of Scriptures that were inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice.
 
I agree that Paul is not making this into a canonical issue, as I reread my post I do sound as if that is what I meant. My point that I was aiming at was that the Scriptures as Paul was referring to does not bind us in any way to what was canonical to him at that time because the canon was to be worked out as time went on. And I doubt that he had a defined standardized canon in the sense that we think of today, otherwise we would have had a definition given by the Apostles. My point is that, what Paul had in mind as “all scripture”, and what the Holy Spirit had in mind, was not a list. But I do believe that Paul had in mind a body of Scriptures that were inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice.
Well this is kind of the point. Julie Mae refers to his point as well.

Paul is saying Scripture is inspired. The issue can therefore be said to be what constitutes scripture. and what does ‘inspired’ mean? My take on this is Paul could be understood to be saying anything that is inspired constitutes scripture, and to be guided by inspired writings rather than human reasoning?

Arguments around the Canon of Scripture is a bit like putting the cart before the horse. Writings other than the books of the Bible may well be inspired. Some writings today may be inspired. Did God stop inspiring people to write anything after a certain date, and did he only inspire a limited number of people?
 
Well this is kind of the point. Julie Mae refers to his point as well.

Paul is saying Scripture is inspired. The issue can therefore be said to be what constitutes scripture. and what does ‘inspired’ mean? My take on this is Paul could be understood to be saying anything that is inspired constitutes scripture, and to be guided by inspired writings rather than human reasoning?
Arguments around the Canon of Scripture is a bit like putting the cart before the horse. Writings other than the books of the Bible may well be inspired. Some writings today may be inspired. Did God stop inspiring people to write anything after a certain date, and did he only inspire a limited number of people?
(Emphasis mine)

👍…THIS…

Where this begins to become an issue is in discussions with our “Bible Only” friends. Particularly those who DO try to make a clear distinction between canonical (fully inspired) and extra -canonical (not inspired) writings.

Peace
James
 
The Greek words for “all scripture” have ‘scripture’ in the singular and the term ‘all’ more accurately as “every”. So what 2 Timothy 3:16 is most accurately saying in Greek is “Every individual [book/passage of] inspired writing,” and less likely saying “All Scripture as a single collection of books.”

But I would also say that the ‘holy writings’ mentioned of 3:15 would most likely be the Septuagint, since Timothy was only half Jewish, and his dad was Greek.
Did Jesus ever once quote anything from the Septuagint ? If He didn’t would not that have spoken something to Paul, being a “new creature” and not bound from his “upbringing”, which led him astray on other things ?
 
Did Jesus ever once quote anything from the Septuagint?
To be completely honest - I don’t know. But I have been told that there are a number of OT books that Jesus never quoted from…so if that were to be the test for inclusion…the bible would be even thinner.
If He didn’t would not that have spoken something to Paul, being a “new creature” and not bound from his “upbringing”, which led him astray on other things ?
Not sure what you are saying here…
I do know that Paul praised the Bereans for their searching of Scripture…and it is highly likely that they would have been using the Septuagint…

Just some thoughts.

Peace
James
 
I simply asked if there was “a scholarly consensus” on what he meant.
the answers I have received indicate that there is no such scholarly consensus and I am satisfied with that.

Peace
James
That kind of just about sums it up and I would agree with your statement - there is no scholarly consensus in relation to the actual ‘books’ Paul was referring to when he stated ‘all scripture.’

However - I would say there is more evidence to support the view Paul would have considered the Septuagint and the Deutero-canonical writings scripture, and consequently inspired, than there is he did not. It is also possible he may have considered other writings scripture and consequently inspired that are not included in the Canon.
 
That kind of just about sums it up and I would agree with your statement - there is no scholarly consensus in relation to the actual ‘books’ Paul was referring to when he stated ‘all scripture.’

However - I would say there is more evidence to support the view Paul would have considered the Septuagint and the Deutero-canonical writings scripture, and consequently inspired, than there is he did not. It is also possible he may have considered other writings scripture and consequently inspired that are not included in the Canon.
Of course anything is possible but is it plausible ? What “other” writings would you be referring to that are not in the Canon ( CC or P) ?
 
Paul would be referring to that scripture Timothy ( a Greek / Jew), like Paul, would of considered kosher…minus the circumcision verses …😃
 
Paul would be referring to that scripture Timothy ( a Greek / Jew), like Paul, would of considered kosher…minus the circumcision verses …😃
All the more since there were no verses or chapters to speak of. 😛
 
It seems you got your answer. Nothing, according to scholars, gives solid definition of what specific books he means. But Paul, being a pillar of the Church, would likely mean all Church accepted writings.

For the fact that he makes this authoritative statement in a new letter he was writing at the moment.

Just as Peter gave authority to all of Pauls letters even before he wrote them. A sort of papal authority to verify the infallibility of the Apostle Paul in his teaching. But not without a warning to those who twist for their purpose. Sola fide is what comes to my mind. What else is a bunch of playing with Pauls words?

Michael
 
Of course anything is possible but is it plausible ? What “other” writings would you be referring to that are not in the Canon ( CC or P) ?
The ‘Gnostic’ Gospels - The Gospel of Judas, the Gospel of Thomas, the Gospel of Peter. There may be more I personally don’t know of. Do you think these books were inspired? Do you think St Paul thought they were inspired? What is the reason for your answer? What do you think is plausible, and why would you say this?

I know why the Catholic Church did not include the writings I mention above in the Canon. Why would you say the Protestant Churches did not include them in the Canon? Would you say St Paul did not think the Deutero-canoninical/apocraphyl books were inspired? What would be the reason for you answer? Do you think St Paul thought the Greek Septuagint was inspired? What would be the reason for your answer to this question?
 
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