a few contridactions i have found in my bible study

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That is false. The Commandment “Thou shalt not commit Adultery” prevents this interpretation of yours. In addition, your interpretation would be an unnecessary redundancy upon the mentioned commandment.
I think you are mistaken. The Decalogue has already banned adultery. These passages are talking about sexual intercourse within marriage.
 
I think you are mistaken. The Decalogue has already banned adultery. These passages are talking about sexual intercourse within marriage.
please clarify

If moses had meant sexual intercourse then why did he not use the same wording that he used in Leviticus 18:20

Lev 18:20 Moreover thou shalt not3808** lie carnally5414, 7903, 2233** with413 thy neighbor’s5997 wife,802 to defile2930 thyself with her.

or use what he had used in his other writings such as:

Adam KNEW Eve in Gen 4:1
Cain KNEW his Wife in Gen 4:17
or any other place where KNEW is used for Sexual Intercouse

“uncover the nakedness” seems to be a bit much of a stretch.

It is just no tenable based on established other wording used in the OT for “Sexual Intercourse”
 
Perhaps it is meant to imply that no sexual actions whatsover are permitted within these relationships. That is, if it simply said sexual intercourse, perhaps other forms of sexual pleasure might be deemed acceptable. By prohibiting even the uncovering, we can’t make that excuse. This would explain why the examples you quoted deal with the use of the word (“knew”) with the postive act of sex (as opposed to prohibiting all sexual activity).
 
Perhaps it is meant to imply that no sexual actions whatsover are permitted within these relationships. That is, if it simply said sexual intercourse, perhaps other forms of sexual pleasure might be deemed acceptable. By prohibiting even the uncovering, we can’t make that excuse. This would explain why the examples you quoted deal with the use of the word (“knew”) with the postive act of sex (as opposed to prohibiting all sexual activity).[/quoteP] perhaps…
 
Perhaps it is meant to imply that no sexual actions whatsover are permitted within these relationships. That is, if it simply said sexual intercourse, perhaps other forms of sexual pleasure might be deemed acceptable. By prohibiting even the uncovering, we can’t make that excuse. This would explain why the examples you quoted deal with the use of the word (“knew”) with the postive act of sex (as opposed to prohibiting all sexual activity).
Exactly.
 
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