P
Paragon468
Guest
Hey all. I am recently engaged, and my fiance and I are planning to be married in the Byzantine Rite. We are both Latin Catholics, but have been attending Divine Liturgy for about a year and fully intend to change canonical rites.
My only question is this: I sponsored her when she became Catholic, so I am technically her godfather. A marriage between us would be perfectly licit in the Latin Church, but Eastern Churches require a dispensation. We had no intention of changing rites when she was baptized, so we didn’t expect it to create any sort of obstacle.
Is this something a dispensation would likely be given for? It would be horrible to change rites only to discover the dispensation will not be given. Is there a precedent for this?
Disclaimer: I definitely intend to speak with my priest about this. Just looking into it now since I won’t see him for another week.
My only question is this: I sponsored her when she became Catholic, so I am technically her godfather. A marriage between us would be perfectly licit in the Latin Church, but Eastern Churches require a dispensation. We had no intention of changing rites when she was baptized, so we didn’t expect it to create any sort of obstacle.
Is this something a dispensation would likely be given for? It would be horrible to change rites only to discover the dispensation will not be given. Is there a precedent for this?
Disclaimer: I definitely intend to speak with my priest about this. Just looking into it now since I won’t see him for another week.