A Question about Scripture

  • Thread starter Thread starter Sue_Burton
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
S

Sue_Burton

Guest
Hi

I am a new member and hope I am asking this in the right place. I am currently researching the Shroud and Ovedio and Veronica veil. A question hit me and I wondered if anyone had any opinions. It is written that when Mary first saw Jesus, outside of the tomb, that Our Lord told her not to touch Him as He had not yet ascended to the Father. However later, Our Lord is with the disciples and He invited Thomas to place his hands on His Wounds. Our Lord had still not ascended to the Father in the sense that we read He ascended on a cloud being seen by his disciples. So why was it not alright for Mary to touch Him but it was alright for the Disciple to touch Him?

I am an ardent believer that everything in the Gospels are true and if it ever appears that one contradicts another, I see this as not understanding something, that there is an answer. One Apostle omits something another has written about, and sometimes, more is added than another has written about. So hence there is an answer to this, it is a matter of finding it.

It did occur to me last night, that may be being touched by Mary so soon after His Resurrection, could of harmed her in some way. A burn or something, Has anyone else got any other ideas that might explain this?

God Bless
Sue
 
Here’s what I think… Mary loved Jesus. When He died she thought she had lost Him forever. Seeing Him again, she thought He was back with her for good. He knew that He would be leaving her again and for good in just a few weeks. He said what he said to dispell any false hope that might be rising up within her of spending a lot more time with Him. In other words, He was saying something like, “Mary, I know that you are excited to see me again but you must understand that I will be leaving you again very soon, this time for good, and in the meantime we have a lot of work to do.”
 
This could be it. I guess I was looking at the do not touch Me as literal. Does make sense. In close wording it may help me if I can look at the exact translation of the words.

Thanks
God Bless
Sue
 
Lots of people have the same question you’ve had - so welcome to the crowd! We’ll probably have to wait till we get to heaven to know for sure, but meanwhile…

My thoughts:
Jesus of course can read hearts; He knew what was in Mary Magdalenes heart, what motivated her desire, what meaning it would have for her to touch/cling to Him. He also knew what effect touching Him would have on Thomas.

My thinking is that Mary so loved Our Lord as she had come to know Him (alive, walking and talking on earth, physically present to relate to), and that she no doubt was longing again, craved, to have Him present in that way. His appearance in the garden must have seemed to be just that. Perhaps Jesus knew she could become too attached to having Him manifest Himself in that way (if He allowed physical contact) - that she might continue to seek out and beg for that type of presence from Him in the years ahead. But such desire is not Our Lord’s will. Instead, Jesus desires us to yearn and seek His physical presence in the “normal” manner He had decided to manifest Himself physically in the New Covenant era - that is, in the Eucharist. And so to Mary Magdalene He says “Do not cling to Me…”

Now, Thomas’ thoughts and desires were probably totally different - and Jesus responded accordingly. For Thomas it must have been very important that He have absolute proof that this was a risen REAL body.

Nita
 
Nita this is such a good way of answering this. Of course we will never know for sure, but this is in accordance with everything Our Lord shows us. His compassion, the way He knew souls, could read what was in their hearts. Such compassion towards Mary would of been as we know Him through Scripture. It shows the two different needs being fulfilled and does show another possible example of Our Lord’s relationship with us as individuals as well as collectively.

One of my strongests learnings at the Last Supper as written by John, is how despite being sorrowful unto death, despite having before Him all that He was about to suffer, Our Lord tended to the needs of the disciples and His Church. He showed such compassion, such love and even His words to Philip when Philip asked Him to show them the Father, melts ones heart, and is able to almost break a heart.

He promises never to leave us and in the Blessed Sacrament of the Eucharist He is always present.

God Bless
Sue
 
This is the way I heard it from Tim Gray’s discussion of the Gospel of John. He does admit that this is speculation, for the Church doesn’t give a specific reason Christ did this. But in a way, it makes sense.
Mary then moves toward Jesus to embrace Him. But Jesus says, “Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father”. Why does Jesus tell her not to hold Him, especially knowing that Jesus will invite Thomas to poke Him and probe Him? Jesus even reasons, “for I have not yet ascended…” As everything else in John’s Gospel this has a reason.
What else ascends into the heavens in the Old Testament? The Sacrificial Burnt Offerings which atoned for sin - they rise to heaven as a sweet and pleasant aroma to God (paraphrasing). The only person that could handle a sacrifice after it’s been offered up to God is the Levitical Priests. The Apostles are going to be the first priests of the New Covenant and Jesus, of course, is the Sacrifice. Hence, the Apostles were the only ones that could touch our Risen Lord before He Ascended.
 
Hi

I am a new member and hope I am asking this in the right place. I am currently researching the Shroud and Ovedio and Veronica veil. A question hit me and I wondered if anyone had any opinions. It is written that when Mary first saw Jesus, outside of the tomb, that Our Lord told her not to touch Him as He had not yet ascended to the Father. However later, Our Lord is with the disciples and He invited Thomas to place his hands on His Wounds. Our Lord had still not ascended to the Father in the sense that we read He ascended on a cloud being seen by his disciples. So why was it not alright for Mary to touch Him but it was alright for the Disciple to touch Him?

I am an ardent believer that everything in the Gospels are true and if it ever appears that one contradicts another, I see this as not understanding something, that there is an answer. One Apostle omits something another has written about, and sometimes, more is added than another has written about. So hence there is an answer to this, it is a matter of finding it.

It did occur to me last night, that may be being touched by Mary so soon after His Resurrection, could of harmed her in some way. A burn or something, Has anyone else got any other ideas that might explain this?

God Bless
Sue
St. Mary Magdelene had been given an order from the angel – go announce the good news of the resurrection to the Apostles. It could be that Christ’s comment was simply another way of saying, “Go fulfill the mission you were given. Announce the good news of my resurrection to the Apostles. And don’t linger around the tomb.”

More likely, the phrase most English versions translate as “don’t touch me” should be translated as “don’t hold me” or “don’t retain me.” St. Mary Madelene had thrown her arms around the feet of the Good Lord and didn’t want to let Him go for fear that she would lose Him again, and He wanted her to release Him so He could announce the good news of the resurrection to others.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top