A question on original sin

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My priest told me that since Mary was born without original sin she had no desire to commit it. Why then did Adam and Eve, who were both born without original sin, have a desire to commit it?
 
The word is “concupiscence”. Those without original sin (our first parents, Mary, Christ) may be tempted, but, do not have concupiscence.

CCC 405 Although it is proper to each individual, original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.
 
Adam and Eve, without concupiscence, had no inclination/leaning toward sin. So it was a totally free choice. And in the time of choice they said “My Will be Done” and chose disobedience.

Mary, also without concupiscence, had no inclination/leaning toward sin. So she came to the question of obedience to God was as free as our first parents and made the other choice: “Thy will be done”.

In this way she un-did the “No” of Eve and so is given the title “new Eve”.
 
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I heard the other day something which may answer this. Mary was of course able to sin, but did not chose to as were our first parents who did chose to. The difference was Mary did not engage with the devil or temptation. When an angel appeared to her she not knowing what it was listened first … she says nothing when the angel greets her. Eve engages with the fallen angel as soon as he greets her and so he engages her with his lies immediately. Mary listens, one might call it discerning… until she has heard the angel say that she has Gods favour and until she has heard the angel tell her what God wants. Then only asks one question. The angel answers and Mary’s gives her reply and the angel leaves. Eve had been trapped by many lies because she did not discern anything. When we want to know if God is speaking to us or the devil we do well to follow Mary’s example and listen and discern and not engage til we are sure…God is patience itself so he will give us time. Both had the grace to do that, one chose it. Free choice.
 
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He was not quite accurate in that. Not being in the state of original sin does not modify our wills such that we don’t want to commit sin. When were baptized original sin is removed and we enter the state of being justified instead. But that does not mean that we cannot or no longer desire to sin.

Mary had a very different and special role to play. Her freedom from sin was both do to her continuous choice, and to grace
 
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My priest told me that since Mary was born without original sin she had no desire to commit it. Why then did Adam and Eve, who were both born without original sin, have a desire to commit it?
Adam and Eve were constituted in a state of original justice before committing their actual sins, however it is not stated precisely when they were constituted. The Blessed Virgin Mary was conceived (and born) without the stain or original sin. The stain of original sin is not having the state of sanctifying grace.

Jesus Christ experienced temptations (Matt. 4:1–11) and he was also without sin and without concupiscence, so it is at least possible for the Blessed Virgin to experience temptations too.

Catechism of the Catholic Church
1743 “God willed that man should be left in the hand of his own counsel (cf. Sir 15:14), so that he might of his own accord seek his creator and freely attain his full and blessed perfection by cleaving to him” ( GS 17 § 1).
 
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Our first parents had no concupiscence, neither did Mary or Christ. Had Mary committed any sin it would have been of her freely choosing to give in to temptation.
 
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