About sacrifices

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VociMike

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In the OT, sacrifices made for the atonement of sins only covered sins already committed. They did not cover future sins, as far as I know. So my question is for those who claim Christ’s sacrifice happened once in time and is now past. How are their sins atoned for by a sacrifice that has already happened? How has any sin after 33AD been atoned for?

The Catholic & Orthodox understanding of Christ’s sacrifice, as being both in time and outside of time, provides a suitable answer, IMHO.
 
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VociMike:
In the OT, sacrifices made for the atonement of sins only covered sins already committed. They did not cover future sins, as far as I know. So my question is for those who claim Christ’s sacrifice happened once in time and is now past. How are their sins atoned for by a sacrifice that has already happened? How has any sin after 33AD been atoned for?

The Catholic & Orthodox understanding of Christ’s sacrifice, as being both in time and outside of time, provides a suitable answer, IMHO.
Looks like no takers.
 
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VociMike:
The Catholic & Orthodox understanding of Christ’s sacrifice, as being both in time and outside of time, provides a suitable answer, IMHO.
I would agree. Scott Hahn’s book “The Lamb’s Supper” which is a study of the Book of Revelation, emphasizes that this is why Jesus appears in Revelation as a Lamb who was slain — because His sacrifice never ends (which is why we don’t “re-crucify” Jesus at Mass – how can you repeat that which never ends?). Jesus is the perpetual sacrifice going on until the end of time!
 
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VociMike:
The Catholic & Orthodox understanding of Christ’s sacrifice, as being both in time and outside of time, provides a suitable answer, IMHO.
Hello VociMike,

I agree with you that Christ’s sacrifice happened within physical time and the spiritual effects of Christ’s sin atonement are spiritually omni present to all time.

Jesus celibrated the first Eucharist at the Last Supper before his physical sacrifice on the cross. Still there is spiritual real presence in the Eucharist at the Last Supper which flows out from Christ’s future physical death on the cross to the physical past moment of the Last Supper.

Old Testement states that sins are forgiven through Israelite “peace offering” to God. There is no forgiveness of sins outside of Jesus death on the cross. Obviously the spiritual sin atonement gifts of Christ’s physical death flow out spiritually into the physical past to the Last Supper Eucharist and any Old Testiment “peace offering” which scripture claims to have the power to take away sins. The spiritual effects of Christ’s death flow out into future time also as seen in our sacrament of the Eucharist and sacrament of reconciliation.

Peace in Christ,
Steven Merten
www.ILOVEYOUGOD.com
 
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Didi:
Jesus is the perpetual sacrifice going on until the end of time!
Help me out here. Heb.9:11-28 states (paraphrasing here) that Jesus is the mediator of the New Covenant and He entered into the Holy Place once for all having obtained eternal redemption. And unlike the HIgh Priest, who had to revisit the Holy Place yearly, Jesus only had to do it once to “put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.” (v.26). If Jesus were the perpetual sacrifice, then wouldn’t the writer have omitted this? Trying to find some answers. Good day.
 
Help me out here. Heb.9:11-28 states (paraphrasing here) that Jesus is the mediator of the New Covenant and He entered into the Holy Place once for all…<<
Once for all means He is there always until He retruns, always offering His blood for the atonement of sins. Try contemplating these few questions…
  1. St.Paul says Jesus is our High Priest in the heavenly Holy of Holies. The HOH on earth was a meeting place between God the Father and a liason of the priestly people, the high priest. But it also acted to separate God from everyone else. Why is there a HOH in heaven? From whom does it separate God from in heaven? If there is no separation from anyone in heaven, how can it be the hoiliest place?
  2. When Jesus was crucified, He was brutally tortured. His body bore many grievous wounds. Yet when He resurrected, He was healed. He obviously didn’t appear to anyone in the bloody crucified mess that He was when he was laid in the tomb. If Christ’s resurrected body was healed, why did He ascend bodily into heaven with the puncture marks in His hands, feet, and lance wound in His side? (The holy wounds Thomas examined and touched.) Why were these wounds not healed?
Thal59
 
If the sacrifice was only on the cross, then Jesus had no reason to ascend into heaven.

As it is, scripture also says:

Heb 5:9 and when perfected, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him, (NAB)

Heb 8:4 If he were on earth he would not be a priest, for there are priests already offering the gifts which the Law prescribes. They offer worship in a sanctary which is only a copy … (NAB)

So Jesus had to enter into an eternal temple in order to offer the sacrifice. Eternity has access to all times at once, so the blood shed from the cross is available to him as an offering.

As far a seperation goes, the indications are that all who are part of Jesus’ body will enter the holy of holies. That is the only way into the heaven of heavens. – the sacrifice of one’s self with Jesus.

Being conformed to the High Priest, Jesus.

e.g. No one has gone up to heaven, except him who came down from heaven.

Hope that helps.
 
Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross is made present throughout the ages by means of the Eucharist.
 
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