Would it be accurate to say that the only moral ejaculation that can take place is during coitus/vaginal penetration? (I’m trying to be as direct and clear as I can be when asking this question.)
There’s nothing immoral about a night emission. And if a husband, say, suffered from premature issues (just one example) there’s be no issue. There has to be deliberateness.
But in general, assuming the person was being deliberate and was awake, you are right.
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