S
StMikhael
Guest
Which of course means Jesus was mistaken, which concludes He was not God.
From Wikipedia (only using this a springboard for my question):
He noted that in the gospel of Mark, Jesus speaks of a “tribulation”, with his coming in the clouds with great power and glory" (St Mark), and states when it will happen: “This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled” (St Matthew, 24:34) (or, “have taken place” (Luke 21:32)): “All these things shall come upon this generation” (Matthew 23:36). “There be some standing here which shall not taste of death till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom” (Matthew 16:28) (or, “until they see that the kingdom of God has come with power” (Mark 9:1); or, “till they see the kingdom of God” (Luke 9:27).)
My question is, how is this refuted in modern theology and how was it refuted in ancient times?
On face value, a clear and concise reading of the text, it does indeed appear Schweitzer makes a strong point.
I know this (my question) is nothing new. What I am attempting to discern in my post is; are the arguments against Schweitzers view strong, or are they glossed over with simple yet nonconvincing refutations.
Thanks in advance.
From Wikipedia (only using this a springboard for my question):
He noted that in the gospel of Mark, Jesus speaks of a “tribulation”, with his coming in the clouds with great power and glory" (St Mark), and states when it will happen: “This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled” (St Matthew, 24:34) (or, “have taken place” (Luke 21:32)): “All these things shall come upon this generation” (Matthew 23:36). “There be some standing here which shall not taste of death till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom” (Matthew 16:28) (or, “until they see that the kingdom of God has come with power” (Mark 9:1); or, “till they see the kingdom of God” (Luke 9:27).)
My question is, how is this refuted in modern theology and how was it refuted in ancient times?
On face value, a clear and concise reading of the text, it does indeed appear Schweitzer makes a strong point.
I know this (my question) is nothing new. What I am attempting to discern in my post is; are the arguments against Schweitzers view strong, or are they glossed over with simple yet nonconvincing refutations.
Thanks in advance.