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heart4home
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"2 Timothy 3 - 16 All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice,
17 That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.”
I’m highlighting every because that seems to be a key point for many who adhere to sola scripture.
Anyways, this verse is the one I am always quoted for the basis of sola scripture? How does one read this to mean only scripture is needed?
I’ve read it so many times and I try to be open and really understand their interpretation, but I just don’t see how they could understand from this single verse that all that is needed is scripture.
"17 That the man of God may be perfect."Who is this man of God if he is not a member of the Church?
And what do we know about the Church?
1 Timothy “If I am delayed, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth”
The believer, who has come into the Church and who is following His Church (the pillar and foundation of truth) and reading the Bible through the guidance of the Holy Spirit and Church(the pillar and foundation of truth) that He started, will find scripture to be the answer to being made perfect and ready for every good work.
Interesting enough if I read the NIV, they’ve taken out the made perfect and only say
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.”
So if I’m following sola scripture from that translation of the Bible, I’m not even sure where they are coming up with the idea that it’s all they need.
17 That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.”
I’m highlighting every because that seems to be a key point for many who adhere to sola scripture.
Anyways, this verse is the one I am always quoted for the basis of sola scripture? How does one read this to mean only scripture is needed?
I’ve read it so many times and I try to be open and really understand their interpretation, but I just don’t see how they could understand from this single verse that all that is needed is scripture.
"17 That the man of God may be perfect."Who is this man of God if he is not a member of the Church?
And what do we know about the Church?
1 Timothy “If I am delayed, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth”
The believer, who has come into the Church and who is following His Church (the pillar and foundation of truth) and reading the Bible through the guidance of the Holy Spirit and Church(the pillar and foundation of truth) that He started, will find scripture to be the answer to being made perfect and ready for every good work.
Interesting enough if I read the NIV, they’ve taken out the made perfect and only say
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.”
So if I’m following sola scripture from that translation of the Bible, I’m not even sure where they are coming up with the idea that it’s all they need.