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element87
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Is “Will already have been bound” an appropriate translation of Matthew 16:19? Some protestants claim this is saying the exact opposite of what the Church teaches, emphasizing God’s authority, not Peter’s.
The translators of all these versions don’t seem to think so. Only the Holman Christian Standard Bible translated it this way. I’ve never heard of this translation before now.Is “Will already have been bound” an appropriate translation of Matthew 16:19?
They might have a (weak) point if the Bible actually said that. But it doesn’t.Some protestants claim this is saying the exact opposite of what the Church teaches, emphasizing God’s authority, not Peter’s.
Umm, yes we do.As Catholics, we don’t believe that the Pope/Church makes decisions that change God or Heaven.
But this passage is not about divine truth, but about temporal (earthly) authority. The Precepts are not part of the Deposit of Faith, and could change at any time. But faithful Catholics are nonetheless bound by them.We believe that God protects the Pope/Church from teaching error. The Church teaches what is already true; truth does not change dependant on the Church.
If the translation was accurate, one could say that the Church merely “reports” what God has already determined. The Church is thus merely a messenger with no inherent divine authority.So I don’t see how the Holman translation really undermines Catholicism or the Papacy anyway.
I think he meant to say that the Church is guarded from defining erroneous dogma and doctrine. It’s not like Mary’s coronation wasn’t true, then the Church declared it dogmatically and Jesus said to himself “Oh boy… Ma! Get over here. I got to crown you now!” What the Church declares infallibly doesn’t change the deposit of faith or what’s in Heaven.Umm, yes we do.
The five Precepts of the Church are of manmade origin, yet they bind all Catholics under penalty of sin. The Church goes straight to Matt 16:19 to establish this authority.
But this passage is not about divine truth, but about temporal (earthly) authority. The Precepts are not part of the Deposit of Faith, and could change at any time. But faithful Catholics are nonetheless bound by them.
If the translation was accurate, one could say that the Church merely “reports” what God has already determined. The Church is thus merely a messenger with no inherent divine authority.
Yes, of course, but the passage about “what you bind on earth is bound in heaven” has nothing to do with doctrine. It is about rules (manmade constructs). This bind/loose terminology is not familiar to Western ears, but Our Lord’s hearers would have immediately known that he referred to the authority of the Jewish leaders to impose or lift an obligation.I think he [ie, me] meant to say that the Church is guarded from defining erroneous dogma and doctrine. It’s not like Mary’s coronation wasn’t true, then the Church declared it dogmatically and Jesus said to himself “Oh boy… Ma! Get over here. I got to crown you now!” What the Church declares infallibly doesn’t change the deposit of faith or what’s in Heaven.
The passage in Mt. 16 refers specifically to the authority of the Pope (and not the Magisterium). Peter is addressed personally, and “you” in verse 19 is singular.The Church generally holds that this refers to both the capacity if the Church to make rules (man made) and to interpret the word of God and teach authoritatively. As such, one might say we are both right. Or not. I’m not too bothered either way.
Matthew 16:19*And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. **And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.
I question your statement, David.Yes, of course, but the passage about “what you bind on earth is bound in heaven” has nothing to do with doctrine. It is about rules (manmade constructs). This bind/loose terminology is not familiar to Western ears, but Our Lord’s hearers would have immediately known that he referred to the authority of the Jewish leaders to impose or lift an obligation.
Yes, you and underacloud are correct - the passage applies to both divine and judicial authority.I question your statement, David. In “Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma” (page 287), Dr. Ott states…