Amen -Egyptian sun god vs Amein

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I have a friend who is a non-Catholic pastor and poses this question that I’d really like to pose to a priest/historian in-the-know:

“Amen Ra", WAS a SO CALLED Egyptian sun god … ☛ Book of Exodus 23 …"You shall have NO other gods before me!
:point_up_2:t4:You shall NOT make of yourself a graven image, or any likeness of anything that is in Heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth; ☛ you shall NOT bow down to them or serve them; for I the Lord your God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and the fourth generation of those who hate me, but showing steadfast LOVE to thousands of those who LOVE me and keep my commandments ✞✞✞AMEIN✞✞✞ ¯_(ツ)_/¯ .¸¸.•`*•¸✲•.¸.•✰

The Hebrew of the Old Testament reveals to us that the Scriptural Hebrew word (which means: so be it, or verily, or surely) is “Amein” and not "Amen.” . . . . Likewise, the Greek equivalent in the Greek New Testament is pronounced: "Amein”

The Egyptians, including the Alexandrians, had been worshiping, or been acquainted with, the head of the Egyptian pantheon
Amen-Ra, the great sun-deity, for more than one thousand years B.C. Before he was known as Amen-Ra, he was known as Amen among the Thebans.

According to Funk and Wagnall’s Standard College Dictionary, AMEN was the god of life and procreation in Egyptian mythology, and later identified with the Sun-god as the supreme deity and called “Amen-Ra.” Smith’s Bible Dictionary and Egyptian Belief and Modern Thought agree.

Our Savior Yeshua HaMashiach calls Himself “the Amein” in Revelation 3:14. One might ask: Have we been misled to invoke the name of the Egyptian sun-deity at the end of our prayers? PRESENTED IN REVELATIONS 22:21 … AMEIN & AMEIN
 
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Eh, this isn’t a good argument. Just because the English changed the pronunciation of a word doesn’t change it’s meaning. Just like we have changed the name יֵשׁוּעַ‎ – yēšūă‘ to “Jesus”, however Amen is pronounced in Hebrew makes no difference to the meaning on the English word.
 
So the Amen in Amen-Ra is actually weird when you go into Egyptian mythos. It is pronounced Ahhmen-Ra but the Amen in the new testament would be pronounced eimen. The stuff about the statues and images well the old testament is filled with images and statues such as the Golden snake which the Jews had to look at or they would die from poison, or the Arc of the Covenant which had engraved images of Seraphim (a specific type of angel). If he takes that bit to the extreme then we can’t have pictures of our family members that are in heaven either because “any likeness of anything that is in heaven above.”
 
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Our Savior Yeshua HaMashiach calls Himself “the Amein” in Revelation 3:14. One might ask: Have we been misled to invoke the name of the Egyptian sun-deity at the end of our prayers?
Let me make sure I’m getting this straight:
  • he points out that the two words – Egyptian ‘Amen’ and Hebrew ‘amein’ – are distinct, with different meanings and origins
  • he points out that Jesus calls Himself “ὁ Ἀμήν” (that is, “ho Amehn”) in Revelation 3:14
  • and he asks whether this is an invocation of the Egyptian deity?
Seriously?

(Is he just getting bent out of shape over contemporary English pronunciation? Or is there something else – other than an illogical question – going on here?)
 
The major problem with the argument here is that there is no such Egyptian god as “Amen”. This argument derives from a bastardization of the two separate gods “Amun” and “Aten”. The god Aten was an attempt at heliocentric monotheism in Egypt but only lasted for a few decades before his name was violently removed from the historic record and polytheism re-emerged in Egypt.

The usage of the Hebrew spelling “Amein” when speaking of 'the Amen" in Revelation 3:14 is also a grave misstep. Revelation was solely written in Greek. There is no reason to try to manipulate the word into Hebrew to better fit the argument.
 
Revelation was solely written in Greek. There is no reason to try to manipulate the word into Hebrew to better fit the argument.
Sure, but its a Hebrew word that’s being inserted here, right? (Or, maybe I should write “it’s a Hebrew word written in Greek, savvy?”… 😉 )
 
It is somewhat debatable. The original Hebrew word was ‘aman’. The Greek usage derives from the Syraic Aramaic form. The Semitic roots are similar but the usage of aman and amen are parallel linguistic evolutions. ‘Amen’ replaced ‘aman’ in vernacular Hebrew after the Assyrian captivity.

So, while ‘Amen’ was used during the time of Christ in Hebrew, both the Hebrew and Greek usages are actually from Aramaic.
 
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So, while ‘Amen’ was used during the time of Christ in Hebrew, both the Hebrew and Greek usages are actually from Aramaic.
Fair enough. Still doesn’t change the situation though, does it? It’s a foreign word, absorbed into Greek. (Hence the reference to ‘savvy’…😉 )
 
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