R
roseanneb
Guest
Recently someone asked a question in the Ask An Apologist section regarding anger. He said that in the Bible, Jesus exhibited anger twice - once when he threw the moneychangers out of the temple, and once when he cursed the fig tree for not bearing fruit. Since anger is a mortal sin, then Jesus must have been guilty of sin. Or something like that.
The answer from Fr. Serpa was that Jesus showed righteous anger, and that righteous anger is not a sin.
How does one have righteous anger toward a fig tree? The fig tree has no will or intent to do harm. So it had no fruit - so what? I don’t get it. I know Jesus was not capable of sin, but the explanation that this was righteous anger makes no sense to me.
And who determines what is righteous anger? One would think, for example, that slaves had a right to be angry. But in the time of Jesus, slaves were an accepted part of the social system and I’m pretty sure would have been punished for an angry outburst. Yet later, when people began to see that slavery is wrong, attitudes changed. Slaves were angry, and for good cause. Where’s the absolute truth here?
There’s a lot riding on this interpretation of what is righteous anger. This isn’t supposed to be subject to moral relativism.
Any thoughts?
The answer from Fr. Serpa was that Jesus showed righteous anger, and that righteous anger is not a sin.
How does one have righteous anger toward a fig tree? The fig tree has no will or intent to do harm. So it had no fruit - so what? I don’t get it. I know Jesus was not capable of sin, but the explanation that this was righteous anger makes no sense to me.
And who determines what is righteous anger? One would think, for example, that slaves had a right to be angry. But in the time of Jesus, slaves were an accepted part of the social system and I’m pretty sure would have been punished for an angry outburst. Yet later, when people began to see that slavery is wrong, attitudes changed. Slaves were angry, and for good cause. Where’s the absolute truth here?
There’s a lot riding on this interpretation of what is righteous anger. This isn’t supposed to be subject to moral relativism.
Any thoughts?