M
MamaSusie
Guest
Bear with me. I did do a search.
This question is ABOUT A FRIEND.
She asked me about annulments and I directed her to an article on the EWTN site which indicated 2 possible reasons, one being that one spouse is not “open to life” at the time of marriage. Her situation is that he (protestant) married her in the church, and agreed to be open to children, to raise them in the church, etc… But from the very get go, it was lip service. He didn’t mean it, nor did he really think she expected him to…it was just what they were “supposed to say.” She took it very seriously, however. The first few years of their marriage were strained over the issue. She later became pregnant, after chosing to follow the church and go off the pill. He was aware that she could be pregnant but was taking his chances. They have a little girl now. He does not want more children, at least that’s his attitude right now.
Since he was not really open at the time the vows were taken, does the birth of their child change the validity of his intentions? The way it’s worded in the article is that if a spouse “intends to avoid it completely.” Well, they didn’t set out to NEVER have kids, he’s just never ready…it’s never a good time.
This one issue alone has lead to a million others, countless hours of counseling, and a generally stressful life for all involved. She is ready to move on, but is concerned that she will not qualify for an annulment based on the word “completely.”
I apologize if this question has been answered 100 times before.
Thanks
This question is ABOUT A FRIEND.
She asked me about annulments and I directed her to an article on the EWTN site which indicated 2 possible reasons, one being that one spouse is not “open to life” at the time of marriage. Her situation is that he (protestant) married her in the church, and agreed to be open to children, to raise them in the church, etc… But from the very get go, it was lip service. He didn’t mean it, nor did he really think she expected him to…it was just what they were “supposed to say.” She took it very seriously, however. The first few years of their marriage were strained over the issue. She later became pregnant, after chosing to follow the church and go off the pill. He was aware that she could be pregnant but was taking his chances. They have a little girl now. He does not want more children, at least that’s his attitude right now.
Since he was not really open at the time the vows were taken, does the birth of their child change the validity of his intentions? The way it’s worded in the article is that if a spouse “intends to avoid it completely.” Well, they didn’t set out to NEVER have kids, he’s just never ready…it’s never a good time.
This one issue alone has lead to a million others, countless hours of counseling, and a generally stressful life for all involved. She is ready to move on, but is concerned that she will not qualify for an annulment based on the word “completely.”
I apologize if this question has been answered 100 times before.
Thanks