Anointing of the Sick in Bible?

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I’m looking for Scripture quotes about anointing of the sick in both OT and NT. I currently have:

Mark 6:13
James 5:14

I’m having trouble finding others, specifically in the OT.
 
I believe the only “official” one used to justify the sacrament is James, as far as annointing the sick with oil goes. The one in Mark has the basic elements, but I guess it is not considered the “institution of the sacrament.” I got this question wrong as a catechist in an inter-grade contest. :o I didn’t feel so bad because no one else had a clue either!
However, there are many references to annointing with oil in Psalms (which is what I answered, and got half credit). Ps 23:6 for example; I do not know of any specifically that relate to the sick, but they do talk about annointing.
 
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tkdnick:
I’m looking for Scripture quotes about anointing of the sick in both OT and NT. I currently have:

Mark 6:13
James 5:14

I’m having trouble finding others, specifically in the OT.
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saliva mixed with dirt (Jn 9:5 ff., Mk 8:22-25), as well as water from the pool of Siloam (Jn 9:7).

Then there is the laying on of hands for the purpose of ordination and commissioning (Acts 6:6, 1 Tim 4:14, 2 Tim 1:6) and to facilitate the initial outpouring of the Holy Spirit (Acts 8:17-19, 13:3, 19:6), and for healing (Mk 6:5, Lk 13:13, Acts 9:17-18).

At the Ascension scene, Jesus echoed this instruction to the apostles and declared that “the sick upon whom they lay their hands will recover” (Mk. 16:18).

At Pentecost, the Holy Spirit conferred great gifts upon the Church, including healing: St. Paul recognized, “Through the Spirit one receives faith; by the same Spirit another is given the gift of healing, and still another miraculous powers” (I Corinthians 12:9-10).

In all, the Church has been continually mindful of our Lord’s command, “Heal the sick” (Matt. 10:8).

Various Church Fathers attest to the use of this sacrament in the early Church. St. Augustine (d. 430) wrote that he “was accustomed to visit the sick who desired it in order to lay his hands on them and pray at their bedside,” and from his writings it is probable that he anointed them with blessed oil. Pope Innocent I (d. 417), in his letter of instruction to Decentius, affirmed that the Letter of St. James clearly refers to the sacrament, the bishop must bless the oil, a bishop or priest must administer the sacrament, and the sacrament complements the sacrament of Penance, conveying the forgiveness of sin.

Many allusions are found in later Fathers of the Church both in the use of the rite of anointing for the sick, and for obtaining healing of both soul and body:

Origen (Alexandria, 185 - 254),
Tertullian (Rome, 160 - 220),
Athanasius (Alexandria, 293 - 373),
Gregory (Nazianzus, 329 - 389),
John Chrysostom (Antioch, 349 - 407),
Ambrose (Tier, 340 - 397),
Augustine (Numidia, 354 - 430),
 
Tobit’s blindness was miraculously cured when his son Tobiah, following the instructions of a disguised Angel Raphael, anointed Tobit’s eyes with fish gall. (Tobit 2:10-11; 6:9; 11:7-8, 10-15)
 
Todd Easton:
Tobit’s blindness was miraculously cured when his son Tobiah, following the instructions of a disguised Angel Raphael, anointed Tobit’s eyes with fish gall. (Tobit 2:10-11; 6:9; 11:7-8, 10-15)
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👍 I forgot that one and it is one of my favorites.
 
Thanks for the help everyone!!!

Anyone else have places to find this, especially OT prefigurings?
 
The humongous problem with referencing the passage in James, besids that fact that it was not written to the Body of Christ, but to the Diaspora Jews or Circumcision Believers (Jam 1:1 )that believed prior to the revelation of the mystery and the Gospel of the Uncircumcision being revealed to Paul in Acts 9; is that when you annoint someone today they do not become physically healed as the passage promises.

Physical healing is a promise when this is done by Circumcision Believers. When Catholic priests attempt to do it, people die very soon afterward almost every time.

Here is the passage. Tell me if this is what happens when your priest annoints someone with chrism
James 5:14-15 Is anyone among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer of faith will save the sick, and the Lord will raise him up. And if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven.
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Notice that this passage refers to both physical healing (sick being raised up) and spiritual healing (sins being forgiven). So, the popular cop out that says, “Well, it really just promises spiritual healing, so its OK that they die” is shown to be utterly without merit.
 
The passage says nothing to indicate that it refers to physical healing at all. It says the Lord will raise the sick up, but does not in any way indicate that this is a physical raising. I see no problem with the indication that this is a spiritual raising, or a reference to the resurrection.

It is also erroneous to claim that merely because James’ letter is addressed to a particular group of people that its teachings only apply to that group. As Scripture tells us, there is no favor with God. We are all equal in God’s eyes, to say it in a more modern way. The teachings that James is giving to a particular group are the same teachings that any other group would receive. There may be certain things which are geared toward the group, such as the examples used. For instance, when teaching a Jew about salvation, James would refer to someone they were familiar with, Abraham, as an example. If he were to teach a gentile, he would not reference Abraham, because the gentile would not necessarily know who he was.

If we are to use this criteria to ascertain doctrine, we have a major problem insofar as that each and every letter of the Bible is addressed to a particular group. This means that we must consider the letters to the Corinthians to apply only to that particular group. In other words, Christians of Jewish background would not need to pay any attention to the letters to the Corinthians because they were written for gentile believers. We would end up with a segmented Bible in which half of the books would be meaningless to any given individual.
 
I think some people have the idea that anointing of the sick only happens at the death bed, which is not true, although that is a very special type of anointing where the person receives their last Holy Communion, “Viaticum,” which means “food for the journey.”

Anointing is also done for people who have serious or chronic health problems, people who suffer from addiction, people who are having surgery, etc.

I also see no proof that the passage in James is talking about physical healing. When we think about it, which type of healing is more important – physical or spiritual? Which type will last into eternity?

I’ll choose spiritual any day, and I’m someone who has been dealing with a serious chronic illness for over five years, who also has received anointing of the sick three times (and I’m still kickin’!).
 
Why was my post deleted!?!? People even responded to the information and claims I included in it and their posts were edited to get rid of my posts existence. I did nothing wrong. I said nothing inappropriate.

I see this as a sign of intellectual retreat and defeat by the forum moderators. Because James 5:14-16 clearly refers to both physical (raised up) and spiritual (sins forgiven) healing, coupled with the fact that the Epistle of James was addressed to a group of Jews who believed a gospel and doctrine that was different in significant ways from Paul’s gospel and doctrine (circumcision, dietary laws, the Mosaic Law for example) they could not let the others who post in this thread read that for fear that some might recognize that the promise of physical and spiritual healing in James is not in effect for members of the Body of Christ today

.Anyone that really believes that being “raised up” in this passage does not mean being physically healed, please tell us what being “raised up” means, if not being physically healed. Show me that I am wrong with some intelligent explanation that I can examine and understand please.

TheOpenTheist
 
Is not the ressurection of the dead physical in nature?
 
Being raised up can be spiritual. A person’s soul can be raised up. Why is it hard to look at things that way? People speak symbolically like that all the time. They say, “Gee that song really raised my spirits,” and that sort of thing. A person’s soul can be raised up from a state of seperation from God to a state of being with God. I’m not claiming that the passage definitively states this, but it certainly doesn’t definitively state that it is a physical healing. There is absolutely nothing in the passage to indicate that it need only be physical or that it need only be spiritual. I also pointed out in my last post why the theory of who James was writing to doesn’t mean a thing.
 
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