M
moonfire
Guest
How can I answer someone who asked me about why we can’t use grape juice or “regular” leavened bread as the Body and Blood of Christ? The issue was raised about alcoholics being able to drink the wine. I read in James Akin’s Mass Confusion book about the rare, special exception to offering wine to a parishoner (or priest) who is an alcoholic, but I personally have a belief (I could be wrong) that there is no way if I were an alcoholic that the Blood of Christ at communion would take me off the wagon so to speak. I also don’t believe I would catch someone else’s cold from drinking from the cup either. I don’t know how I ever came to that conclusion, but it’s what I believe for me. But as an answer to that question from a protestant, I don’t think that will work 
I was trying to remember why we use unleavened bread as well… this person cited the fact that Jesus “broke bread” and I guess the bread that comes to mind is “normal” bread, with yeast. Is that right? Or did he use unleavened bread? And if there was some kind of change in the type of bread Jesus used and what we use, where and how did that come about? If it was tradition, was it passed down from the Apostles then? How do I answer the question about that being a “man made” rule/tradition? My understanding is that traditions in the Church are valid IF they descended from the teachings of the Apostles…
Can anyone help me provide a good answer? I’m feeling overloaded with an urgency to defend my faith intelligently and I’m embarrassed to realize I can’t!
Help!
I was trying to remember why we use unleavened bread as well… this person cited the fact that Jesus “broke bread” and I guess the bread that comes to mind is “normal” bread, with yeast. Is that right? Or did he use unleavened bread? And if there was some kind of change in the type of bread Jesus used and what we use, where and how did that come about? If it was tradition, was it passed down from the Apostles then? How do I answer the question about that being a “man made” rule/tradition? My understanding is that traditions in the Church are valid IF they descended from the teachings of the Apostles…
Can anyone help me provide a good answer? I’m feeling overloaded with an urgency to defend my faith intelligently and I’m embarrassed to realize I can’t!