S
Sbee0
Guest
Not sure why people overthink this, to me the resolution is quite easy once you realize the “problem” is entirely caused by misuse of syntax and logic.
Consider:
A) I can build any 1 foot wall
B) I can jump over a 1 foot wall.
C) Therefore, there is no 1 foot wall I can’t build which I can’t jump over.
D) Therefore, I cannot build such a 1 foot wall.
A and B are both true.
Therefore C is true, as it is another way to state the conjunction of A+B.
D cannot be derived from C as the lack of existence of something does not imply it can’t be created
In fact D is FALSE as it completely contradicts A which has already been established as true.
Now consider:
E) God can create any stone
F) God can lift any stone
G) Therefore, there is no stone created by God which he cannot lift.
H) Therefore, God cannot create a stone which he cannot lift.
E and F are both true, as God is omnipotent.
Therefore, G is true, as it is another way to state the conjunction E+F
H cannot be derived from G for the same reasons noted above.
H is in fact FALSE, as it contradicts E which has already been established as true.
And thus IMO, invalidates the entire “paradox”, or at least seemingly so.
Consider:
A) I can build any 1 foot wall
B) I can jump over a 1 foot wall.
C) Therefore, there is no 1 foot wall I can’t build which I can’t jump over.
D) Therefore, I cannot build such a 1 foot wall.
A and B are both true.
Therefore C is true, as it is another way to state the conjunction of A+B.
D cannot be derived from C as the lack of existence of something does not imply it can’t be created
In fact D is FALSE as it completely contradicts A which has already been established as true.
Now consider:
E) God can create any stone
F) God can lift any stone
G) Therefore, there is no stone created by God which he cannot lift.
H) Therefore, God cannot create a stone which he cannot lift.
E and F are both true, as God is omnipotent.
Therefore, G is true, as it is another way to state the conjunction E+F
H cannot be derived from G for the same reasons noted above.
H is in fact FALSE, as it contradicts E which has already been established as true.
And thus IMO, invalidates the entire “paradox”, or at least seemingly so.
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