Anullment, of course!

[Michael_Saint]

Yes and no. It may objectively have a defect, but it is subjectively valid until such time as the Church declares it otherwise. God binds what the Church binds. Therefore, it is valid.

This is not true. A marriage is either “valid” or “invalid” at the time of the wedding. If it is “valid”, it will always be valid. If it is “invalid”, it will always be invalid, no matter what the “presumption” is.

 

[LilyM]

no it may very well be that in the course of their married life the condition that existed at the time of the marriage is rectified, or takes care of itself, or barrier to consent is removed and consent is supplied, or in some way the defect is remedied.

One example - Henry VIII went through all the hooha with divorcing his first wife so he could marry his mistress. This second marriage, of course, was invalid in the eyes of the Church.

His first wife, however, died while he was still on his second marriage to that mistress. So all barriers to his marrying that mistress were removed, and he could’ve done so sacramentally in the Church had he so wished. Of course by then he’d definitively broken from Rome and was enjoying the benefits of taking over Church property in England, so he wasn’t going to go running back to Rome even though he could.