S
sjsander
Guest
Hi Guys,
I am taking a Intro to World Religions class as I needed a 4 credit hour class and for our last section we are learning about Christianity and Islam. Thus far I have learned that what scholars refer to as the Synoptic Gospels (Mark, Matthew and Luke) differ greatly from the Gospel of John. According to my teacher, Matthew, Mark and Luke are in a 50% verbatim agreement with each other but are only in a 10% agreement with John.
I was wondering if anybody has done further research and found out why? The obvious reasons would be that they were written by different people I know but things he mentioned were that according to Matthew, Mark and Luke Jesus was baptized by John the Baptist but the Gospel of John mentions no baptism. He also said that the authors of Matthew and Luke had their own separate materials from which they wrote their gospels but they also had the Gospel of Mark in front of them while writing…
I am taking a Intro to World Religions class as I needed a 4 credit hour class and for our last section we are learning about Christianity and Islam. Thus far I have learned that what scholars refer to as the Synoptic Gospels (Mark, Matthew and Luke) differ greatly from the Gospel of John. According to my teacher, Matthew, Mark and Luke are in a 50% verbatim agreement with each other but are only in a 10% agreement with John.
I was wondering if anybody has done further research and found out why? The obvious reasons would be that they were written by different people I know but things he mentioned were that according to Matthew, Mark and Luke Jesus was baptized by John the Baptist but the Gospel of John mentions no baptism. He also said that the authors of Matthew and Luke had their own separate materials from which they wrote their gospels but they also had the Gospel of Mark in front of them while writing…