C
CutlerB
Guest
I’m quite confused about all this. I regularly encounter someone on Facebook who hails Apophatic Theology — in a manner that suggests that he supports it exclusively — above all else. He tends to appeal to this school of Theology especially when Dogmas of the Church (such as the Marian ones) are concerned. Generally, he spins his comments like this: “Infallibly defined Dogmas of the Church do not require positive/active assent/belief, but merely non-rejection”.
If you don’t see the connection between that statement and Apophatic Theology, suffice it to say that I don’t quite either.
So what I really have are two questions:

If you don’t see the connection between that statement and Apophatic Theology, suffice it to say that I don’t quite either.
So what I really have are two questions:
- What is Apophatic Theology about? Does it have limits? Is it a widespread school?
- Do Infallibly defined doctrines (whether Councils or Popes) require active belief by the faithful, or should they merely not deny them?