M
MaximilianK
Guest
Aquinas merely presumes here that God’s grace (which all agree is necessary) will be inoperative in Hell. No argument, it’s just plainly stated as if self-evidently true.
He concludes, “Therefore, the souls of the wicked will cleave unchangeably to the end which they themselves have chosen.” Aquinas doesn’t specify this “improper end.” What is it? What is the non-good toward which the human will is oriented everlastingly in Hell?
He concludes, “Therefore, the souls of the wicked will cleave unchangeably to the end which they themselves have chosen.” Aquinas doesn’t specify this “improper end.” What is it? What is the non-good toward which the human will is oriented everlastingly in Hell?