Aquinas' First Proof of God from Motion

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Hi,

Can someone explain to me what are the problems with the proof for God’s existence from motion? Specifically Aquinas’ first proof? What are the refutations for this out there?

God bless,
Ut
 
I may be wrong, but it seems like most of the refutations of Aquinas’ First Way are based on a misunderstanding of what Aquinas is talking about when he speaks of “motion.” He isn’t talking about locomotion specifically, but change in general (i.e. potencies being reduced to act by an actual external agent). A lot of people will say that Newton’s Second Law (i.e. that a body in motion stays in motion unless acted on by an outside force) shows that the First Way is false because motion can occur infinitely with no outside force. But I think Aquinas would reply that no change is being realized in an object moving at a constant velocity with no net acceleration so it is not something he would consider to be “in motion.”

Another thing that is commonly misunderstood is that the causal series Aquinas has in mind are essentially ordered series and not accidentally ordered ones. He’s not arguing that a billiard ball collided with another billiard ball which collided with another ball because the locomotion of the last ball in the series will continue regardless of whether the earlier balls cease locomotion. Which is why he famously did not assume that the universe had a beginning in the finite past because he didn’t think that an accidentally ordered series could be proven to have a finite number of members. It’s more like me moving my arm, which depends here and now on muscle contractions, which depend here and now on neural firings, which depend here and now on action potentials, which depend here and now on physical properties, etc. Cut off any one of those causal agents and all the motion after the cut point ceases. A series of that sort would have to terminate with an unmoved Mover which is what he attempts to prove in the First Way.
 
balto nailed it.

Here’s a nice rundown. Motion involves something potential becoming actual (ex: Cold water is potentially hot. A hot stove is required to make the water actually hot). Nothing potential can make itself actual, it needs something else to actualize it. This process cannot continue infinitely. There needs to be an unactualized actualizer, or unmoved mover in order to account for any motion at all.

Most objectors are likely to take issue with the minor premise. There’s another way out of the Newton objection, one that I think works better. Newtonian physics is a quantitative model that describes the way things behave. It only works under certain conditions with limited accuracy. It’s the map, not the territory, and not a particularly accurate map. As philosopher Leslie Armour wryly notes, Newton gave us a rule and “we have never observed anything but deviations from this rule”. Newtonian physics does not give us a full explanation for motion. To my knowledge, Newton never even claimed to.

Another point worth considering: no one since Aristotle - not Newton, not Descartes, not Einstein - has ever provided a definition of motion that did not include motion or one of its synonyms (for example “change from one state to another” includes the term change, which is a type of motion)
 
As Balto stated St.Thomas viewed motion as potency and act. Potency, a real capacity to become and act, the actual fulfillment of that capacity. becoming. eg; water becoming ice, a fetus becoming an adult etc. It is an objective fact in our human existence that we have a condition we call “cause and effect” If we have a series of causes and effects we should be able to follow the effects back to their initial cause, this movement from cause to effect is the movement from potency to act, in other words change. If we assume that there is an infinite series of causes and effects, there would be no begining because an infinite series has no begining or end. Logically then a series always lead back to a first cause. the creation of the world had a first cause, an uncaused cause, and an unmoved mover. the only being that could possibly be the First cause, and the First mover must be God I hope I did the explanation justice.
 
Thanks for your responses.

I think I take Aristotle and Aquinas to mean in their analysis of the material universe that all material things are composites of form (actuality) and matter (potentiality). And nothing can move from potential to actual unless by something already actual.

For example, ultimately all life is moved by the energy of the sun. If the sun were to disappear, then all life would also disappear. The potentiality of life on earth can be actualized for any number of other reasons, but this one seems fundamental.

Moving beyond life to the cause of the universe that we get the four to five forces of gravity, electromagnetism, the weak and strong nuclear forces, and the debatable fifth, which is dark energy. But even these can be shown to be caused and have their origin in the big bang, where, presumably, there was a potential in the big bang that became actualized at a certain point to give us the four/five forces that are fundamental to the current state of our universe. Scientists are still looking for a unified theory that explains them all, but even if they were to find such a material first cause, it would still be a composite of form and matter and would have to be explained by something that is not such a composite. Something that is pure act by its very nature in which can be no potentiality.

From what I understand you all saying is that Newton threw a wrench in all this by claiming something could be in infinite motion… but doesn’t that depend on the four forces, which are shown to be caused by the big bang, therefore not being eternal at all? Also, didn’t Aristotle essentially believe in a steady state universe where the outer celestial spheres were constantly in motion but, although factually eternal, still required the unmoved mover to eternally actualize its potential?

I guess I’m struggling to see where Newton’s law is actually all that devastating to Aquinas’ argument.

God bless,
Ut
 
I joined an atheist forum for a while, until they kicked me out.

Atheists reject Aquinas’ proof from motion ( meaning every kind of change of everything you can think of ) in at least these ways:
  1. the universe started by “accident”
  2. the universe started by “chance”
  3. the universe started by “quantum effect”
  4. the universe never started, but has existed through an infinite past
I’ve already refuted all these arguments on this forum,
but I’ll give somebody else a chance to have a little fun.
The paired skating is about to start on tv. 😃
 
Hi,

Can someone explain to me what are the problems with the proof for God’s existence from motion? Specifically Aquinas’ first proof? What are the refutations for this out there?

God bless,
Ut
Hi Ut. You can read Aquinas by Edward Feser again, that may help. Also, he is coming out with a new book in March which will discuss the essentials of Aristotelian-Thomistic philosophy. He said that it would not be a discussion on the Five Ways. Blato has made valid observations above. I have said a lot about this on the thread, " The First Way Explained " and will be discussing more. I also made some important comments on the thread, " St. Thomas’ argument from Contingency, posts # 34, 40, 62, 77. I may comment more there but it is useless arguing with Belorg. Committed Atheists will not admit to anything which even hints at the possible existence of God and they constantly bring up red herrings like Modern Science and they absolutely refuse to read Thomas himself.

The key to my argument is two fold. Nothing in Science invalidates any of the Five Ways, not even the First Way. Even in the case of local motion ( and the First Way is not limited to local motion but includes all forms of change). Secondly, all the Five Ways are also concerned with the cause of the existence of limited and contingent beings, these being the movers and the moved, who must ultimately have their existence from the Unmoved Mover. For nothing moves or is moved unless it first exist. And neither can exist unless it first be brought into existence by the Unmoved Mover.

Now when the Unmoved Mover brings beings into existence, He gives them their Nature by which they are moved naturally. This is easy to see in living things where one part moves another and thus the whole creature, which is in turn moved by its soul. But it is the Unmoved Mover that has given the creature its Nature. In other words, the Unmoved Mover gives every creature, as a part of its nature, all it needs to move and function naturally without the need for an external mover.

This applies to inanimate beings as well. The Unmoved Mover gives their Natures every facility and potentiality to function and move naturally according to His Divine Plan.

Thus, if I fire a rocket into space and thus apply impetus to it, all its parts have been endowed by the creator with Natures, having the potentiality to receive this impetus and keep the rocket going indefinitely, as long as it is not countered by a contrary force. ( Contrary to what Newton said however, the rocket will not keep going for an infinite time because space is not a vaccum.) However if it were, then, by the impetus which it has received it will continue moving forever. But if so, it will be due to an infinite potential for infinite movement provided by the Creator at creation. So it is the Creator who is the Prime Mover of the rocket, the men who designed the ship, the fuel which supplied the impetus, the parts of the rocket, etc, would be instrumental movers only.

It is important to notice here that, this is a natural movement. Once the impetus is received the instrumental movers who built the ship and who fired it and the energy which supplied the energy can be forgotten. There is no accompanying mover to the moved. And this is true in all local motion which occurs naturally. The only time an accompanying mover would be required would be in examples of constrained movement like pushing a car up a hill.

So in the famous phrase, " Quod enim movetur ab alia movetur, " the other, the mover is Primary Mover who created a Nature with the potentiality of receiving an impetus capable of moving the ship, naturally and spontaneously, forever.

Thus, this is not a case of a finite power exercising infinite poser. It is a case of the Prime Mover creating Natures capable of converting a finite impetus into infinite motion, exercising an infinite power, instrumentally, supplied by the Prime Mover, Who alone has Infinite Power.

So those who misinterpreted Newton are proved wrong. Newton, more than once, declared that there was a Divine Cause which caused the natures from which his Laws were abstracted, to move and behave as they did.

God is the God of gravity as well. So those who ridiculed Aristotle and Thomas for their explanation of the movement of heavy and light bodies seeking their proper place are proven wrong also, These movements are explained by the potentiality of these objects to be moved by gravity to their proper places. And it is God, the Creator of their Natures, Who gave their natures the potential to be moved by gravity and to seek their proper places.

Other arguments can be made to answer Relativity and Quantum Mechanics. But I think enough has been shown to make reasonable people see that nothing excapes God’s causality, even if we cannot explain it down to the " T " or even if we cannot see the " objects, " as in Quntum Mechanics.

And so we see that in every case of local motion we are led to the Prime Mover who creates the Natures of beings, who move naturally, and with the potentially and power He created them with. All arguments contrary to this are nothing but Sophistical Red Herrings.

If you are interested in a more detailed explaination of these things you will need to get access to a really great book, Nature and Motion in the Middle Ages by John A. Weisheipl O.P. Good libraries should have a copy. Now out of print but can still be found at super high cost. I paid $140 for mine and that was cheap!!!

Linus2nd
 
Hi Linusthe2nd,

Fantastic post! Honestly - I can’t find a thing in it that I don’t agree with or find confusing.

I haven’t debated this question much so I don’t know what kinds of counterarguments to expect, but I would be surprised if any compelling argument against it exists. The argument seems iron clad.

God bless,
Ut
 
Hi Linusthe2nd,

Fantastic post! Honestly - I can’t find a thing in it that I don’t agree with or find confusing.

I haven’t debated this question much so I don’t know what kinds of counterarguments to expect, but I would be surprised if any compelling argument against it exists. The argument seems iron clad.

God bless,
Ut
Hope it helps. I meant to mention that if you can find the time, you should read Thomas’ Commentary on A’s Physics, especially Book 8, paragraphs 974 to at least 988. There he shows that even Aristotle argues that the mover must first be brought into existence by the Unmoved Mover before it can move anything. Proving Feser’s point that the act of existence is involved in all of Thomas’ Five Ways.
dhspriory.org/thomas/english/Physics8.htm

Linus2nd
 
Thanks for the tip. Right now I’m wadding through Benedict M. Ashley, O.P.'s The Way toward Wisdom: An Interdisciplinary and Intercultural Introduction to Metaphysics. He is an Aristotelian Thomist - River Forest Thomism. I got referred to this book on Ed Feser’s blog by one of the bloggers. It is fantastic! I really like their approach because they focus so heavily on interpreting Aquinas by first getting a proper grasp of Aristotle’s physics and re-interpreting it in light of modern science.

Benedict also mentions your point, I think. Some disputed the idea that Aristotle’s unmoved mover was actually the creator. Benedict defends this point this way:
Yet, even granted the validity of this physical demonstration of the existence of the unmoved mover as the cause of the motion of the universe, some still doubt that this unmoved mover is the Creator, that is, the cause of the very existence of the universe. This doubt is plausible, I believe, only if one neglects to understand this demonstration in the context of the whole development of natural science in Aristotle’s *Physics *(from which Aquinas draws his argument) and only if one forbids Aquinas to carry this argument to its logical conclusion beyond the point that Aristotle developed its consequences in his surviving texts.
For Aristotle, natural science demonstrates that motion (or change in general) is the natural and proper act of existing, changeable, material substances, and hence manifests the nature or essence of these existents, that is, that they are essentially changeable. The reason for this is that they are composed of matter (potency) and form (act). Basing himself on this conclusion of Aristotle, Aquinas then shows that existent substances composed of matter and form must also be composed of essence and existence. Hence no body can give itself esse, the act of “to be”, any more that it can give form to its matter, that is, move itself. Aquinas’s reasoning for this further conclusion is that matter receives its existence from its correlative but cannot do so unless the form is not merely possible but actual. Forms of material things, however, do not have existence in themselves, since they exist only as an actualization of matter.
So yes, it is Aquinas’ concept of *esse * (according to Benedict) that already existed in an undeveloped way in Aristotle that grounds the idea of God as creator.

God bless,
Ut
 
Thanks for the tip. Right now I’m wadding through Benedict M. Ashley, O.P.'s The Way toward Wisdom: An Interdisciplinary and Intercultural Introduction to Metaphysics. He is an Aristotelian Thomist - River Forest Thomism. I got referred to this book on Ed Feser’s blog by one of the bloggers. It is fantastic! I really like their approach because they focus so heavily on interpreting Aquinas by first getting a proper grasp of Aristotle’s physics and re-interpreting it in light of modern science.

Benedict also mentions your point, I think. Some disputed the idea that Aristotle’s unmoved mover was actually the creator. Benedict defends this point this way:

So yes, it is Aquinas’ concept of *esse * (according to Benedict) that already existed in an undeveloped way in Aristotle that grounds the idea of God as creator.

.
God bless,
Ut
Excellent. It would be interesting to know if he references Weisheipl.

Linud2nd
 
Excellent. It would be interesting to know if he references Weisheipl.

Linud2nd
Yes, he does mention him in several places. Here he is mentioned in his definition of A-T
Aristotelian Thomism
A Thomism emphasizing the reliance of St. Thomas on the philosophy of Aristotle is sometimes refereed to as “River Forest Thomism” because the members (of which I was one) of the Albertus Magnus Lyceum for Natural Science located in that Chicago suburb (1950-1969) contended for this interpretation of Aquinas. James A. Weisheipl (c. 1923-1984) of the Medieval Institute, Toronto, and William A. Wallace (1918-) of the Catholic University of America provided it with a good historical grounding. It has, however, other independent supporters. For this position, which I have principally adopted in this present work, the validity of metaphysics depends on two conditions:

  1. *]Thee can be no valid metaphysics formally distinct from natural science unless its subject, Being as Being (esse), as it analogically includes bother material and immaterial being, has fist been validated in a manner proper to the foundations integral to natural science by a demonstration of the existence of immaterial being as the cause of material being.
    *]Modern natural science can achieve such demonstration, but only if its own foundations are rendered unequivocally consistent with sense observation by an analysis such as is exemplified by Aristotle’s Physics as interpreted by Aquinas.

  1. God bless,
    Ut
 
Yes, he does mention him in several places. Here he is mentioned in his definition of A-T

God bless,
Ut
Weisheipl died suddenly at 64 while at a conference in Toronto, a huge loss for not only the Forest River School, but for all Thomists. Wallace was another noted scholar and better known and widely published. Still going, must be 96 or so by this time. I have several of his books. Was a Naval Line Office for five years in WW2, ordained in the Dominicans in 1953, is 96 now.

Linus2nd
 
Thanks for your responses.

Moving beyond life to the cause of the universe that we get the four to five forces of gravity, electromagnetism, the weak and strong nuclear forces, and the debatable fifth, which is dark energy. But even these can be shown to be caused and have their origin in the big bang, where, presumably, there was a potential in the big bang that became actualized at a certain point to give us the four/five forces that are fundamental to the current state of our universe.
Ut
I would keep the big bang out of this. As has been said many times, Aristotle (with whom the argument from motion originates) believed in an eternal universe and Aquinas only thought otherwise because of Biblical revelation.

The motion he is talking about is happening here-and-now. The point you bring up about the forces may have weight. If we are realists about forces, then yes everything including inertial motion is being moved here-and-now by gravity, or any of the other fundamental forces. I’m not sure that anyone knows quite what those forces are.

I need to pick up that Benedict Ashley book! If only I could find a cheaper copy…

Have you read anything by De Koninck or the Laval School Thomists?
 
As has been said many times, Aristotle (with whom the argument from motion originates) believed in an eternal universe and Aquinas only thought otherwise because of Biblical revelation.
Aquinas thought otherwise for two reasons:
  1. the Bible revealed what could not be scientifically demonstrated. How could you scientifically prove that the universe had a beginning? You can’t.
  2. logically the universe had to have a beginning, says Aquinas
newadvent.org/summa/1046.htm#article1

“I answer that, nothing except God can be eternal.”

newadvent.org/summa/1002.htm#article3

But this cannot go on to infinity, because then there would be no first mover, and, consequently, no other mover

Now in efficient causes **it is not possible to go on to infinity, **

Now it is impossible to go on to infinity in necessary things which have their necessity caused by another, as has been already proved in regard to efficient causes.
 
A lot of people will say that Newton’s Second Law (i.e. that a body in motion stays in motion unless acted on by an outside force) shows that the First Way is false because motion can occur infinitely with no outside force.
No because the motion still presupposes something else itself already in motion imparting the motion to the other object. It does not answer the question of motion. Newton’s Second Law only results in there being no necessary end to locomotion as such once it is actualized in some thing. It does nothing to explain the source or origin of motion itself.

For Newton’s Second Law to pose a problem for Saint Thomas Aquinas, you would have to accept without evidence or reason that motion of this kind has existed from eternity to avoid the problem of an infinite regress, which is not a solution. How someone is to prove that a certain something has just always been in motion is beyond me.
Consider that Aristotle thought the universe probably existed from eternity or had always existed; notwithstanding, this did not explain motion for him and it still required a First Cause.
 
I would keep the big bang out of this. As has been said many times, Aristotle (with whom the argument from motion originates) believed in an eternal universe and Aquinas only thought otherwise because of Biblical revelation.

The motion he is talking about is happening here-and-now. The point you bring up about the forces may have weight. If we are realists about forces, then yes everything including inertial motion is being moved here-and-now by gravity, or any of the other fundamental forces. I’m not sure that anyone knows quite what those forces are.

I need to pick up that Benedict Ashley book! If only I could find a cheaper copy…

Have you read anything by De Koninck or the Laval School Thomists?
I haven’t read De Koninck yet. I’'m still relatively new to Aquinas and Aristotle. I have read Ed Feser’s Aquinas and some Gilson, and some Aquinas as well, but apart from that, I haven’t been exposed to many that I have found as convincing as Benedict. In the intro to his book, he lists all the modern forms of Thomism out there including the Existential Thomism of Gilson and Maritain. He praises them for the good they have done in bringing Aquinas into dialog with modern and post modern world views, but criticizes them for too quickly abandoning Aqunias and Aristotle’s physics and treating their arguments only as metaphysical, when they saw them as provable from natural science.

My points about the four/five forces are a summary of what I think Benedict was saying in other places, but he did not directly link it to the problem of motion. He talks about Newton in the following way that I found hard to fully understand. Maybe it might make more sense to you:
For later Aristotelian the great puzzle was how to explain projectile motion. A ball obviously has no natural tendency to fly through the air, yet when struck with a bat moves until stopped. Aristotle himself tried to reconcile this obvious fact with the principle that “nothing moves itself” by supposing that when the ball is struck some force is communicates through the medium through which it moves, which then keeps it moving after it has left the bat that put it in motion. This seems to us absurd, be we should recall that today science still relies on the notion of “field”, that is, a medium, to explain the motion of bodies through that field. The Aristotelian commentators, beginning with John Philoponus (fl. sixth century CE), preferred, (rightly, in my opinion) to say that an impetus or force was imparted to the ball by the stroke of the bat. While they considered gravity to be a fundamental, natural force, a property of certain bodies, the impetus was a secondary type of force or active quality, accidental (preternatural) to the body that received it.
In this way, Newton’s later law of motion could be accounted for, since the impetus would keep the mall moving until stopped by another force. Moreover, since it was not stricly natural by secondary, it need not be predetermined to some specific result (final causality, teleonomy). To this explanation we can add that such an impetus is, as it were, “second nature” to the moving ball. Hence the impetus is not an efficient cause but a quasi-property, which can be eliminated from the body in a way that its true properties cannot. A heavy body remains heavy, even when another body stops its motion; but a ball will not start moving through the air without being again struck. Thus, as long as any force, whether strictly natural or imposed, can be traced back to fundamental physical, material forces (active qualities) that are natural, the argument for an immaterial Prime Mover still follows. As previously noted Newton realized this problem when he concluded that the gravitational force on which his whole system was built required that God as Prime Mover will its action.
In any event, I really recommend the book, although it is very dense. I have taken a few days to read through his interpretation of Aquinas’ first way which is why I posted this thread.

God bless,
Ut
 
No because the motion still presupposes something else itself already in motion imparting the motion to the other object. It does not answer the question of motion. Newton’s Second Law only results in there being no necessary end to locomotion as such once it is actualized in some thing. It does nothing to explain the source or origin of motion itself.

For Newton’s Second Law to pose a problem for Saint Thomas Aquinas, you would have to accept without evidence or reason that motion of this kind has existed from eternity to avoid the problem of an infinite regress, which is not a solution. How someone is to prove that a certain something has just always been in motion is beyond me.
Consider that Aristotle thought the universe probably existed from eternity or had always existed; notwithstanding, this did not explain motion for him and it still required a First Cause.
Agreed. In fact, Aquinas through that an infinite universe would make the proof of God’s existence even more easy to understand.
[Some object that these demonstrations] proceed on the hypothesis of the eternity of motion, that Catholics consider to be false. To this it should be answered that the most efficacious way to proving that God exists is on the hypothesis of the eternity of the world. If this hypothesis is granted, it is harder to see that God exists.
The difficulty that the concept of creation causes in terms of explanations for the existence of God is its De Novo character. That requires Aquinas’ discussion of esse and essence to flesh out.

Which only enforces my opinion that Newton’s law poses no real problem for the first way.

God bless,
Ut
 
No because the motion still presupposes something else itself already in motion imparting the motion to the other object. It does not answer the question of motion. Newton’s Second Law only results in there being no necessary end to locomotion as such once it is actualized in some thing. It does nothing to explain the source or origin of motion itself.

For Newton’s Second Law to pose a problem for Saint Thomas Aquinas, you would have to accept without evidence or reason that motion of this kind has existed from eternity to avoid the problem of an infinite regress, which is not a solution. How someone is to prove that a certain something has just always been in motion is beyond me.
Consider that Aristotle thought the universe probably existed from eternity or had always existed; notwithstanding, this did not explain motion for him and it still required a First Cause.
I agree with what you said. I was trying to present the other side’s argument so I could argue against it:
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balto:
But I think Aquinas would reply that no change is being realized in an object moving at a constant velocity with no net acceleration so it is not something he would consider to be “in motion.”
 
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