I do too but the guy I’m trying to explain it to doesn’t accept that.
The issue is that the Gospel writer tells us Jesus was handed the scroll of the Prophet Isaiah and he read, “The Spirit of the Lord is upon me…”
This section is from “Deutero” Isaiah, but the Gospel writer, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit makes no mention of this.
Jesus quotes regularly from Deuteronomy and says, “As Moses told you” and he quotes from Daniel and quotes Daniel as the author. I bring these two up because they also are hotly disputed books.
Jesus also told us that he tells us nothing except what has been given Him to say by the Father. So if He quotes a book and attributes authorship incorrectly then He has told a formal untruth and made Himself and the Father a liar. And we just can’t got there.
Jesus also groups the OT together as the Law and the Prophets and never once mentions apocryphal authorship for any of the books so again this would be sticky given His claim about His authority.
The reason I reject the multiple authorship of the OT and the compilation theories is because it is evident Jesus did.
Also if you read the theorists no one can figure out who wrote what and which parts should be attributed to which time. All of this is really just wild guessing millennia after the fact and none of it takes into account thematic clarity and consistency that argues for single authorship. Furthermore those who argue for more than one author of Isaiah do so because Isaiah talks about King Cyrus who lived 300 years after the prophet and so the critics say he could not have written about him. In other words they begin to discuss a book of prophesy by denying there is any such thing as prophesy. None of the Jewish writers of antiquity (Talmud) believed this about the authors and neither did the Apostolic writers or Church Fathers.
One of the paramount rules of history is that those sources taken from the times closer to the events themselves are to be believed over the modern critics. Furthermore when there is agreement among writers of antiquity about a source that agreement is to be believed. These rules hold true for the writings of Cicero and Plato and Aristotle of which we have almost none and what we do have come from nearly a thousand years after their writing, but some how a consistent witness given in written form is to be rejected because it appears in the Bible say the higher critics?
Come on…