A premeditated, wanton murder? Torturing someone? Throwing a child into a bonfire? Refusing to give a few bucks to a homeless person, when you have more than enough for yourself? Beating up someone just for the fun of it? Also, do you know anyone in your family or among your friends who would be able and willing to perform any of these acts?
Think about it for a second. The question is NOT: “are you physically able to do any of these?” Most probably you could (given the means), if you wanted to. But the point is that you are “not free” to do any of these – due you the psychological “barriers” in your mind. You simply do not “want” to do these types of actions. Do you feel that your freedom is curtailed due to your psychological limitations?
The true question: “could you guess why I started this thread?”
Why are these psychological “barriers” and why are you portraying them as such?
Perhaps the reason someone would have for not committing these acts is because they have chosen with a final determination that they will not under any circumstance choose not to commit the acts in question. Simply because a “psychological barrier” exists does not mean the barrier itself was not freely constructed. The nature of the “barrier” would call into question the psychological nature of the one for whom the “barrier” exists.
I could have spent years exploring an issue from every possible moral perspective and come to a well-formed and definitive conclusion that “X is wrong” and that I will never carry out X as a free choice that is now an indefeasible part of my behaviour and which you would describe as a “barrier” that stops my acting to the contrary. Yet, the barrier was a freely constructed and is freely willed on my part.
Your post merely ambiguates on the word “barrier” assuming that every strong moral commitment against certain behaviours must be unfree merely because a moral person would not consider (implying “could not”) acting to the contrary.
Yet, freely made choices can be every bit as “determined” as choices that arise from compulsion, indoctrination or addiction and yet still be free. That is exactly why addictions, compulsions and indoctrination can be overcome, i.e., because agency grounded in freedom of the will can be more powerful and execute against any of these otherwise constraining “barriers.”
Not sure why you started this thread, but the problem with trying to propose a plausible “reason” is that if the correctly assessed reason were the true one but made you look bad in the process, denial would always be open to you. So why even ask except as a challenge to free will proponents in order to imply that someone who could act against their conscience is in some misapprehended way more “free” than someone “constrained” by conscience? Yet, it might be asked, why would such a demonstration of immoral or amoral power even be necessary except to prove an insecurity?