I IWantGod Guest Sep 4, 2017 #1 Beginning with the presumption that Objective Moral Law exists, can we know from reason alone what that Moral Law is?
Beginning with the presumption that Objective Moral Law exists, can we know from reason alone what that Moral Law is?
1 1neophyte Guest Sep 4, 2017 #2 I think Lord of the Flies answered that question. Thank God for revelation.
I IWantGod Guest Sep 4, 2017 #3 1neophyte said: I think Lord of the Flies answered that question. Thank God for revelation. Click to expand... Thanks for reminding me of that film.
1neophyte said: I think Lord of the Flies answered that question. Thank God for revelation. Click to expand... Thanks for reminding me of that film.
J Jestersage Guest Sep 5, 2017 #4 You reading Mere Christanity? That’s pretty much how CSL start his argument…
T tonyrey Guest Sep 5, 2017 #5 IWantGod said: Beginning with the presumption that Objective Moral Law exists, can we know from reason alone what that Moral Law is? Click to expand... We can’t! Pascal pointed out that “The heart has its reasons, of which reason knows nothing.” Cold logic is amoral and is not the source of love…
IWantGod said: Beginning with the presumption that Objective Moral Law exists, can we know from reason alone what that Moral Law is? Click to expand... We can’t! Pascal pointed out that “The heart has its reasons, of which reason knows nothing.” Cold logic is amoral and is not the source of love…