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w_stewart
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If I do not have the Douay Bible, Novo Vulgata, and Jerusalem Bible, RSV-CE, what is the best alternative?
that’s not entirely true. The current Douay-Rheims has been modified a little bit to mesh with some of the Greek and Hebrew texts.The Vulgate is the most accurate translation of the Bible. St. Jerome translated the Greek in a very literal, word-for-word translation, and the DR simply repeats this word-for-word translation.
I disagree the most accurate translation depends on which comes closest to the original text.So the translation that is the most accurate really depends on which one comes the closest to matching your language.
Understandable, perhaps, but doctrinally unbiased, hardly. It’s got a clear evangelical bent, not in total accord with Catholic doctrine. (Look elsewhere on this Forum for specific examples of why the NIV is not the best for serious study.) Besides, it doesn’t contain the Deutero-canonical works accepted by the Catholic Church. No Catholic scholars were part of its translation team.A lot of people complain bitterly about the NIV. Let me tell you it is an amazing translation because it is aimed at such a wide English speaking audience, people who vary greatly in how they speak and use English. And it does an amazing job of translating such that English speaking people around the world can read it and understand it. It’s not surprising it’s been so popular because it has a very broad audience.
The best Catholic bible version with a British flavor would be The New Jerusalem Bible (1985). I refuse to recommend the original (1966) Jerusalem Bible because it’s too “free” a translation for serious study.Take on the other hand the New English Bible. Now it’s so elegant in many passages, the people who did it obviously know and love their English. Yet the fact that it’s basically British means that to say an American certain passages read a bit strange at best.
You DO bring up a good point, Jolly Joe, but to use as a criterion a version whose English, in this case, resonates most closely with that of any given individual or group of individuals is probably OK for a first attempt at reading the bible, sort of like baby food; eventually, the reader will have to graduate to “solid food”, i.e., a more literal (read, “more carefully-translated”) version.So just to sum up. There is no one most accurate translation because people’s languages vary too much even among a single language, at least the major languages.
I don’t think you want to leave people the impression it’s OK to read and stay with versions such as The Living Bible, The New Living Translation, The New Contemporary Version, or The Message; it’s really not, especially if the version is not Catholic and the reader is.I would recommend thinking a bit about your language, and then looking at the translations aimed at your group. Chances are, the one who’s target best matches you will be the one that is most accurate for you.
I haven’t read the NIV but isn’t it the case there is a general view that the NIV should be avoided because its a terrible translation?It is funny, though, that the versions I “like” include NIV and NRSV. I pick the latter because it is a Catholic version.
Anyway, is the translation of Douay on Revelation 5:8-11 accurate, s[pecifically the use of “us”, “our” instead of "them and “their”?
Would you like to expand a little on why you think contributions are inaccurate etc.?Yet another thread filled with baseless, overly-simplistic, inaccurate or incorrect assertions about the various translations of Sacred Scripture.
If only God had inspired someone to preserve such a thing…I disagree the most accurate translation depends on which comes closest to the original text.
Hmmm, curious. Nestle, TR, and Byzantine all say “us” (Gr: hemas). I wonder why they translated it this way.In Douay Rheims Bible, Apocalypse 5:8-9 states:
Emphasis mine.
In other modern versions, like NIV and NRSV, “us” and “our” are replaced with “them” and “their”.
KJV on the other hand agrees with that of Douay.
Which translation is correct? Is it a requirement to go back to the Greek Bible to settle issues as this?
for study? yeah it should be avoided (it doesn’t have the deuterocanon at all so you couldn’t perform a lot of studies. for devotion, it’s kind of iffy at best. But it can be a great tool for apologetics work (the NIV was the translation I read as a Protestant and after reading the NIV I came to believe that the Catholic Church was the Church Christ founded)I haven’t read the NIV but isn’t it the case there is a general view that the NIV should be avoided because its a terrible translation?
The explanation can be found in the NET footnotes.Hmmm, curious. Nestle, TR, and Byzantine all say “us” (Gr: hemas). I wonder why they translated it this way.
Then the “us” that appears in the Textus Receptus in verse 10:27 tc The Greek text as it stands above (i.e., the reading τῷ θεῷ [tō theō] alone) is found in Codex A. א 2050 2344 Ï sy add the term “us” (ἡμᾶς, hēmas), either before or after τῷ θεῷ, as an attempt to clarify the object of “purchased” (ἠγόρασας, ēgorasa). A few MSS (1 vgms) delete the reference to God altogether and simply replace it with “us” (ἡμᾶς). This too is an attempt to remove ambiguity in the phrase and provide an object for “purchased.” The shorter reading, supported by the best witness for Revelation, best accounts for the other readings.
So you end up with no specific word given in verse 9 but the people are implied, and the word “them” is supplied by verse 10 and the people in verse 9 and 10 are the same so they stay consistent with supplying “them” in verse 9 to make it clear to the reader.31 tc The vast majority of witnesses have αὐτούς (autous, “them”) here, while the Textus Receptus reads ἡμᾶς (hēmas, “us”) with insignificant support (pc gig vgcl sa Prim Bea). There is no question that the original text read αὐτούς here.
Thanks for clearing that up!The explanation can be found in the NET footnotes.
In 5.9 the “us” is explained by this footnote.
Then the “us” that appears in the Textus Receptus in verse 10:
So you end up with no specific word given in verse 9 but the people are implied, and the word “them” is supplied by verse 10 and the people in verse 9 and 10 are the same so they stay consistent with supplying “them” in verse 9 to make it clear to the reader.
JJ