Biblical Contradictions

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Hey all,

Just wondering…How do we explain some of the contradictions in the Bible. For example, in the book of Sirach, it says do no good or anything for the evil man…I don’t have the exact verse…
But obviously, we know that Jesus preached the total opposite of this…
I know there is a book by a Gleason Archer, called the Encylepedia of Biblical Inconsistencies, but I was just wondering if any of you could share your thoughts/knowledge?

Peace always
 
I reconcile several alleged contradictions in my critique of the NAB at www.catholicintl.com

I have heard good things about Dr. Archer’s book, and I am sure he does a wonderful job reconciling alleged contradictions regarding historical fact, but I think as a Protestant his attempts to reconcile alleged theological contradictions (e.g. Rom 4:3, Jas 2:24) are ultimately futile.
 
If you want specific teachings, laws, or passages clarified you will have to provide them. Otherwise I will try and help you out in a general way.

The Bible was not compiled all at one time. As can distinctly be seen in the differences of the New and Old Testaments. Catholics and many other Christians believe in something called progressive revelation. This means that God gave laws, revealed truths, and taught us certain things in a specific order. Basically our Jewish ancestors had to learn to walk before they could run. They had to be brought to a point where they needed Christ to release them from the slavery of the old law. This doesn’t mean that the truths contained in the older passages are irrelevant, because they are not. With things that are inconsistant one has to look especially closely at them to see what God was trying to and is trying to tell us. That is where Tradition, the work of other scholars, and the Church step in. One person cannot understand the Bible fully without help.
 
I like to think of them as Divine Paradoxes—when a finite mind tries to fathom an infinite mind.
 
While I am not a Catholic, perhaps I can help a little bit? I would say that there’s not one method to solve an apparent contradiction in the Bible, but many things need to be considered. There include:** (1)** the context of the passage (e.g., Rom 4 is not against James 2 if one reads Rom 4 along with Rom 2:6, 13); (2) the genre of the biblical book (e.g., poetic statements about trees clapping their hands are not problems);** (3)** the intention of the author in writing (e.g., if he does not intend to report events chronologically, then lack of chronological order is not a problem); (4) the intended precision of the author (e.g., if Paul is off by a thousand or so in 1 Cor 10 of how many died in the plague in Numbers, is this really a problem? It’s only 4% difference; was Paul intending to give an exact figure?). Wayne Grudem wrote a famous essay where he said that is he says, “I live one mile from my office” and then says “I live 1.2 miles from my office,” both statements may be true even if they are not equally precise. I’ve found this insight into the difference between ‘truth’ and ‘precision’ can solve a lot of inerrancy problems.

Usually these tactics help me, and others…

As for your specific question. Being a Protestant, I am not qualified to address the book you mentioned, but every Christian has a problem in reconciling the Sermon on the Mount with the Impreccatory Psalms (= psalms of cursing enemies) in the Old Testament. I wrote an essay surveying various solutions to this problem and reporting my own solution. If you would like it, just email me at ashton.wilkins@gmail.com and I would be happy to send it to you (or anyone else who asks). I think it might help you with your question.

Thanks,
Ashton
 
I would relate the verse in Sirach to not throwing pearls before swine.
 
Imprecatory prayer is actually a plea for mercy. The longer someone goes on sinning with impunity, the greater their punishment will be in hell. Also, when people of like mind see God strike their comrade down, they will be much more likely to repent than if he dies rich and fat.
 
Could it be a old covenant/new covenant type thing where Jesus ‘overrules’ what was previously said?
 
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Mjohn1453:
If you want specific teachings, laws, or passages clarified you will have to provide them. Otherwise I will try and help you out in a general way.

The Bible was not compiled all at one time. As can distinctly be seen in the differences of the New and Old Testaments. Catholics and many other Christians believe in something called progressive revelation. This means that God gave laws, revealed truths, and taught us certain things in a specific order. Basically our Jewish ancestors had to learn to walk before they could run. They had to be brought to a point where they needed Christ to release them from the slavery of the old law. This doesn’t mean that the truths contained in the older passages are irrelevant, because they are not. With things that are inconsistant one has to look especially closely at them to see what God was trying to and is trying to tell us. That is where Tradition, the work of other scholars, and the Church step in. One person cannot understand the Bible fully without help.
That seems somewhat illogical, why would God have to release them from the Law He created?

What probably happened is that the early Christians found it difficult to just act “released” and found a certain comfort in keeping the Ot despite how it contradicts (in some places) the teachings and spirit of Jesus.

Peace
 
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ricatholic:
That seems somewhat illogical, why would God have to release them from the Law He created?

What probably happened is that the early Christians found it difficult to just act “released” and found a certain comfort in keeping the Ot despite how it contradicts (in some places) the teachings and spirit of Jesus.

Peace
With all due respect to Mjohn, he has stated a couple of things imprecisely, and so has inadvertently given you the wrong impression.

Jesus did not die to release us from the law, as you have surmised by Mjohn’s comment, but from the slavery of the law, which simply means delivered from our inability to keep the law perfectly, which is what God demanded and still demands.

The law was not nullified by Christ, but rather fulfilled by him in that he has imparted to us the grace to keep the law perfectly–to actually become perfect as his heavenly Father is perfect, just as he commanded us to do.

God has not changed his mind. Rather, he has provided in Christ the means for us to do as he commanded us to do in the law. I hope that helps! 🙂
 
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