M
manualman
Guest
But that logic goes to scary places. By your logic, couples must ALL excruciatingly measure the status of the woman’s fertility because sex just before ovulation or sex too long after ovulation is known to result in conditions where the sperm and egg meet, conception often happens, but the uterine conditions are naturally inhospitable to the further development and implantation of the tiny baby.These “therapeutic means” are known not only to be contraceptive, that is, make fertilization of the ovum more difficult, but also well known to be contragestive to a fertilized ovum, making either the uterus inhabitable/less habitable or by promoting the expulsion of the product of conception. That’s why the “pill” is often called an abortifacient by honest medical professionals.
I know that the original poster said this is not a consideration in her case, but I have read some posters reply something to the effect that they couldn’t see giving up that “special” part of marriage merely on the account of treatment of a disease. Well, okay…if a person is resigned to the murder of children so that he or she doesn’t have to give up that special part of marriage, that makes it all right, right??
– Nicole
No, I think the language of Humanae Vitae was clearly and decisively written in such a way that says that the couple is only responsible for what they intend and can clearly affect. In the case of a woman who has been competently medically determined to require hormonal therapy for a medical issue, I’m not convinced that she has to morally tremble over potential side effects any more than they woman NOT on meds whose husband is being frisky on the 4th day after her peak mucus symptoms…