M
mary37
Guest
Hello, I am a Catholic convert, but every once in a while I like to play devil’s advocate and ask questions. I am currently going to a bible study on the gospel of John and we just finished reading chapter 6. Of course it has been explained to me that this proves Jesus was talking literally otherwise all those people would not have left, and I believe it. But I still wonder this–why is John the only gospel to mention such an important occurrence?