Bread of Life Discourse

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Hello, I am a Catholic convert, but every once in a while I like to play devil’s advocate and ask questions. I am currently going to a bible study on the gospel of John and we just finished reading chapter 6. Of course it has been explained to me that this proves Jesus was talking literally otherwise all those people would not have left, and I believe it. But I still wonder this–why is John the only gospel to mention such an important occurrence?
 
There are several important occurances in the gospel of John which are not mentioned in the synoptic gospels. Even the epistles that are credited to John are immensely unique. Why? I don’t know, but they’re magnificent.
 
John’s Gospel is different because it was written later, and for a different purpose. The first three Gospels were focused on getting people to believe Jesus was the Messiah and (in Matthew especially) showing how he fulfilled the Old Testament Jewish prophecies.

By the time John’s Gospel came along, the early Church was pretty well established and everybody understood the importance of consuming the bread and wine. John was trying to take the understanding up a level, and thus presented different scenes and concepts, with a focus on the love of God.
 
why is John the only gospel to mention such an important occurrence?
John’s Gospel is a work of High Christology, rather than the Low Christology of the Synoptics.

There are numerous examples of passages from Synoptics not being common to each other, or to John. The Gospel of Luke is a great example…In the other 3 gospels we do not see the Annunciation to Mary, the Visitation, the Prodigal Son, or the Road to Emmaus; all undeniably important events.

Disclaimer – I am expressing my opinion and not looking for validaiton or argument, so I limit my (name removed by moderator)ut to a single post per thread. Send me a PM, and I will be happy to continue the discussion without monopolizing this fine venue.
 
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