A
ag_28
Guest
Good day and God bless.
Some time ago I had the opportunity to confess to a priest of the Byzantine Church (in communion with Rome). As I tried to listen to the words of absolution, which I normally do for obvious reasons, I thought I detected something wrong… He said something to the effect of "May Our Lord Jesus Christ grant you pardon and absolution of your sins in the name of the Father, etc. He did not use the first person imperative as in “I absolve you etc,” but the subjunctive, “May He etc.” I spoke with him about it on a different occasion, and I was correct; he did use the subjunctive. I told him that it was always my understanding that a priest must actively use his God given authority to absolve:“I absolve you,” acting in the Person of Christ. If he uses the subjunctive, then he’s only praying for you and expressing a wish for something to happen. I do understand that there are certain formulae approved for use which use the passive voice, such as “thou art absolved” etc, but even in this it is clearly shows an action or event taking place, rather than a wish.
This priest, a good man, did not seem like he was intending to do anything wrong, but he replied to me that it’s simply the difference between the east and the west. I left it at that as I didn’t feel comfortable taking it any further. I did re-confess to another priest afterwards.
Is my understanding on this matter correct? In the past when I confessed to eastern rite priests, the formula was a bit different, but I heard “and I, as priest, though unworthy, forgive and absolve you of your sins in this life and the next, in the name of etc.”
Thank you.
Some time ago I had the opportunity to confess to a priest of the Byzantine Church (in communion with Rome). As I tried to listen to the words of absolution, which I normally do for obvious reasons, I thought I detected something wrong… He said something to the effect of "May Our Lord Jesus Christ grant you pardon and absolution of your sins in the name of the Father, etc. He did not use the first person imperative as in “I absolve you etc,” but the subjunctive, “May He etc.” I spoke with him about it on a different occasion, and I was correct; he did use the subjunctive. I told him that it was always my understanding that a priest must actively use his God given authority to absolve:“I absolve you,” acting in the Person of Christ. If he uses the subjunctive, then he’s only praying for you and expressing a wish for something to happen. I do understand that there are certain formulae approved for use which use the passive voice, such as “thou art absolved” etc, but even in this it is clearly shows an action or event taking place, rather than a wish.
This priest, a good man, did not seem like he was intending to do anything wrong, but he replied to me that it’s simply the difference between the east and the west. I left it at that as I didn’t feel comfortable taking it any further. I did re-confess to another priest afterwards.
Is my understanding on this matter correct? In the past when I confessed to eastern rite priests, the formula was a bit different, but I heard “and I, as priest, though unworthy, forgive and absolve you of your sins in this life and the next, in the name of etc.”
Thank you.