Calling All Scholars

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I am reading a document entitled: Doctrinal Elements of a Curriculum Framework for the Development of Chatechetical Materials for Young People of High School Age.

They state on page four, IV. Overview of the Bible A, 1, b. “Catholics rely on the Greek version of the Old Testament for their Bible, while the Protestants tend to rely on a Hebrew version.”

I am perplexed by the Greek for the Catholics.

Any help in explaining it to me.

Thanks!
 
First of all that is not true that we rely on the Greek version of the OT. The Greek Septuagint plays a great role for our OT as far as the book of Daniel, which by the way is Theodotian’s Greek version not actually the Septuagint’s, also some of the Deuters are from the Septuagint while others are influenced by the Hebrew and Aramaic found in the Dead Sea Scrolls. The Septuagint also plays a great role in the formation of the canon while the Protestant Bibles rely on the Orthodox Jews canon for the OT. Funny how they accept the canon of the ones who reject Christ as the Messiah while rejecting the books that the Early Church and the Jews before Christ’s coming held as canon.

The Orthodox Church does rely upon the Greek Septuagint, while we as Western Rite Catholics rely upon the Latin Vulgate. I’m not sure about the Eastern Rite Catholics.

But it is much more complex than the quote you just gave, mainly because every Bible translation and most groups of Christians go by various critical texts, and usually have translations that are eclectic.
 
The Latin Vulgate is mostly a translation of the pre Masoretic Hebrew text, so the claim is simply not true
 
Well it depends on what “for their Bible” means. It would be wrong if it means “for their Bible translation,” but it would be correct if it meant “for the books (i.e.-the canon) of their Bible.”

Since they are drawing a distinction between Catholic and Protestant Bibles, it seems they are referring to the makeup of the canon. If so, there’s nothing wrong with the statement. The OP might ask for clarification on that from whoever provided the document.
 
Jim_Baur said:
I am reading a document entitled: Doctrinal Elements of a Curriculum Framework for the Development of Chatechetical Materials for Young People of High School Age.

They state on page four, IV. Overview of the Bible A, 1, b. “Catholics rely on the Greek version of the Old Testament for their Bible, while the Protestants tend to rely on a Hebrew version.”

I am perplexed by the Greek for the Catholics.

Any help in explaining it to me.

Thanks!
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As already stated, this is an oversimplification and in some respects just incorrect.

The document in question is found here.

The part you quoted was section IV. A., which claims to be based on the CCC para. 121-123, 138. However, the thing about the Greek is not in that part of the catechism (or any other).

The closest I can see, and what they may have been thinking is this:
 
I hope that I copied the sentence correctly.

Thanks to all of you for your help!

Jim Baur
 
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