Can a medical purpose justify an act?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Ron_Conte
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My point was that in Catholic moral theology if you call an act an abortion you are saying its intrinsically evil and always wrong no matter the intent or outcome. If we are talking about a procedure that indirectly leads to the death of a child in the womb, we are not talking about an abortion or a murder. Your in the moral theology section and it only makes sense to define abortion as the Church defines it for the purposes of this discussion.
I am fully aware of how the Church uses abortion: it differentiates direct from indirect abortion.

We have been discussing the morality of different acts. So, if a D&C is used to deliberately end a pregnancy, that is immoral. If a D&C is used to treat disease in a non-pregnant woman that is moral. Since it can be used for moral or immoral purposes, a D&C itself is a morally neutral procedure.
 
I’ll repost since you may have missed it…
The object of the choice can by itself vitiate an act in its entirety.
What you are pointing out does not contradict what I am saying.
Your quote says that if you choose immoral object then the act is immoral. I agree.
 
What you are pointing out does not contradict what I am saying.
Your quote says that if you choose immoral object then the act is immoral. I agree.
My quote also says that the act of fornication always has an immoral object. Thus we know that the act of fornication is always immoral i.e intrinsically evil.

Adultery always has an immoral object by definition, and thus is intrinsically evil. The act of adultery and the object of adultery are inseparable. The moral object of adultery is not just “to have sex”. Its adultery so its by definition “to have sex outside of marriage”. The circumstances would be that maybe your wife was cheating on you as well and your doing it to get back at her. Or maybe you are clinically depressed and your wife is out of town, and you slipped into old bad habits.
 
My quote also says that the act of fornication always has an immoral object. Thus we know that the act of fornication is always immoral i.e intrinsically evil.

Adultery always has an immoral object by definition, and thus is intrinsically evil. The act of adultery and the object of adultery are inseparable. The moral object of adultery is not just “to have sex”. Its adultery so its by definition “to have sex outside of marriage”. The circumstances would be that maybe your wife was cheating on you as well and your doing it to get back at her. Or maybe you are clinically depressed and your wife is out of town, and you slipped into old bad habits.
👍 (no need for me to respond to the post above…Nate did so)
 
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