Yesterday, the Gospel reading stated that Joseph had no relations with Mary until she bore a son. I always thought Mary remained a virgin…have I misunderstood the interpretation?
The problem comes from the fact that you assume that “until” always means that something will follow. It does not. If I say a man was faithful to his wife until he died, this doen’t mean that after he died he was unfaithful. This is the way “until” is used in that passage.
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