Canon law rules on the sale of a parish

[mfundis]

Good morning

I didn’t know if this was the right forum, but I hope so . A group of people were talking last night about our new Bishop Braxton- and that there is a rumor that the Bishop said that he was going to sell any parish w/o a full time priest. When asked where they would go to church if that happened, one person said that they would open they’re own church- with the help of “old catholics” and married priests … ANYWAY- he said that if the parish property was to be sold, the proceeds had to go to the parishioners according to canon law (this guy is really nice- but misguided, he has been listening to some of the more, um, progressive priests locally- I don’t think that he would have any idea on his own w/o someone telling him this “fact”). I can’t imagine this is true ( I looked up TITLE III: CONTRACTS AND ESPECIALLY ALIENATION- but am not sure if that was the right one)-

Does anyone know?
Thanks!
Melanie

 

[Catholic2003]

I think you found the right one:

Canon 1294 §1 Normally goods must not be alienated for a price lower than that given in the valuation.

§2 The money obtained from alienation must be carefully invested for the benefit of the Church, or prudently expended according to the purposes of the alienation.

 

[SouthCoast]

I assume that means proceeds to to the Diocese for appropriation. I would think that would make sense. After all, each parish is supported through the entire Diocese. It isn’t like your local Baptist church where that one building was paid for by that one congregation. In fact, the money is appropriated through the Diocese.

-Michael

 

[Br.Rich_SFO]

mfundis:

Good morning

I didn’t know if this was the right forum, but I hope so . A group of people were talking last night about our new Bishop Braxton- and that there is a rumor that the Bishop said that he was going to sell any parish w/o a full time priest. When asked where they would go to church if that happened, one person said that they would open they’re own church- with the help of “old catholics” and married priests … ANYWAY- he said that if the parish property was to be sold, the proceeds had to go to the parishioners according to canon law (this guy is really nice- but misguided, he has been listening to some of the more, um, progressive priests locally- I don’t think that he would have any idea on his own w/o someone telling him this “fact”). I can’t imagine this is true ( I looked up TITLE III: CONTRACTS AND ESPECIALLY ALIENATION- but am not sure if that was the right one)-

Does anyone know?
Thanks!
Melanie

I think he has been hitting the altar wine. The Bishop owns the Parish church and the property and he can do whatever he wants with them when necessary. If sold the “proceeds” go to him (the diocese). I suggest that if they don’t want the parish sold they start presenting him with possible candidates for the priesthood.