M
MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes!
(First, again, I’m not quite sure where a post like this should go, so, please feel free to move it!)
This question has been bothering me, in some form or another, for some time now.
Jesus Christ is called the Son of God. He died on the Cross as a sacrifice for our sins.
Is not this, then, in some way, a kind of child sacrifice? I mean, I realize that Jesus has, in some way, been co-existent with the Father and the Holy Spirit, but, if He is called the Son of God, He seems to, in some sense, have a kind of Father-Son relationship with God the Father, does He not?
Also, we must remember that, yes, Christ has a Divine Nature, but He also has a human one, and that they both exist at the same time. We must also remember that God, in some human sense, “bore” Jesus to Mary, even though He did so in a supernatural way. So, here again, we have a possible Father-Son relationship with God the Father to (at least the uman aspect of) God the Son.
Even if the “Son of God” title is not representing any kind of parental relationship, if God prohibited child sacrifice to the Jewish people, why would God even allow Jesus to be called the Son if it would likely cause, and possibly for good/valid reasons, Jews to stumble at this potential idea that God was committing child sacrifice contrary to His Own Will?
I get that Jesus is said to have sacrificed Himself willingly, and maybe this is the real issue at hand here in the earlier prohibition against child sacrifice vs. the situation with Jesus’ death?
As I understand it, many so-called “oneness” Pentecostals as well as JWs and even some (many?) Jews bring this up as proof against the traditional Christian doctrines regarding the Trinity.
Guys, I am really having a hard time with all this right now, and it is causing me to question (while never outright rejecting, of course!) some fundamental things. Please help where you can!
Gratias maximas!
(First, again, I’m not quite sure where a post like this should go, so, please feel free to move it!)
This question has been bothering me, in some form or another, for some time now.
Jesus Christ is called the Son of God. He died on the Cross as a sacrifice for our sins.
Is not this, then, in some way, a kind of child sacrifice? I mean, I realize that Jesus has, in some way, been co-existent with the Father and the Holy Spirit, but, if He is called the Son of God, He seems to, in some sense, have a kind of Father-Son relationship with God the Father, does He not?
Also, we must remember that, yes, Christ has a Divine Nature, but He also has a human one, and that they both exist at the same time. We must also remember that God, in some human sense, “bore” Jesus to Mary, even though He did so in a supernatural way. So, here again, we have a possible Father-Son relationship with God the Father to (at least the uman aspect of) God the Son.
Even if the “Son of God” title is not representing any kind of parental relationship, if God prohibited child sacrifice to the Jewish people, why would God even allow Jesus to be called the Son if it would likely cause, and possibly for good/valid reasons, Jews to stumble at this potential idea that God was committing child sacrifice contrary to His Own Will?
I get that Jesus is said to have sacrificed Himself willingly, and maybe this is the real issue at hand here in the earlier prohibition against child sacrifice vs. the situation with Jesus’ death?
As I understand it, many so-called “oneness” Pentecostals as well as JWs and even some (many?) Jews bring this up as proof against the traditional Christian doctrines regarding the Trinity.
Guys, I am really having a hard time with all this right now, and it is causing me to question (while never outright rejecting, of course!) some fundamental things. Please help where you can!
Gratias maximas!