Church history and views on women

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I have a feminist family member who sent me an article about misogynist views of early Church Fathers. How do I answer them? I know that the Catholic Church values women and I know that just because someone is a Church Father, it doesn’t make them infallible. But how should I answer them? I personally do not understand idealists who get impatient towards people for not being imperfect. Thoughts?
 
In the absence of example, I can only offer a general response. Both in the case of Scripture and Early Fathers, their outlook on women was more charitable than those of neighboring cultures. Most of the admonishments against women should be understood as directed toward situations that were unbecoming of femininity. Either women were being instructed to act in modest fashion that was worthy of a bride, either to Christ or their earthly husband, or they were instructed not to act in a manner more geared toward men. This issue isn’t just about taking to themselves roles befitting a man but also in so doing, they reject the gifts from God proper to femininity.

In many ways, some of the modern feminist movement are guilty of the same. For some, they reject the gift of motherhood, of role of educator to the young through nurture, compassion, and empathy, they reject much service of ministry that they feel are “beneath them”. They do this because they claim to be “as good as a man” so they embrace, not femininity, but masculinity.

This is not misogyny by men; this is degradation of womanhood by women.
 
I have a feminist family member who sent me an article about misogynist views of early Church Fathers. How do I answer them? I know that the Catholic Church values women and I know that just because someone is a Church Father, it doesn’t make them infallible. But how should I answer them? I personally do not understand idealists who get impatient towards people for not being imperfect. Thoughts?
What is the evidence given in the article?
 
I have a feminist family member who sent me an article about misogynist views of early Church Fathers. How do I answer them? I know that the Catholic Church values women and I know that just because someone is a Church Father, it doesn’t make them infallible. But how should I answer them? I personally do not understand idealists who get impatient towards people for not being imperfect. Thoughts?
If you can provide the name of the early Church fathers in question I’m sure that I can find a quote from them that shows that they weren’t against women. If the feminist article is calling them “misogynist” just because they did not believe in the ordination of women then the problem they have is not with the early Church fathers but instead with Jesus and the religion of Catholicism itself. Feminists are hypocritical. They judge Catholicism by a totally different standard than other religions when it comes to women. For example, in Islam women are treated as property. Muslim women are forbidden to marry a non-Muslim man, but Muslim men are free to marry non-Muslim women. With Islamic Sharia law it takes two women to equal the testimony of one man, and women aren’t even allowed to drive in Saudi Arabia (the place that is to Muslims what Rome is to Catholics). But feminists usually bend over backwards to defend Islam.
 
First I might respond with this old post…
Perhaps there was ignorance about the nature of women in various writings throughout the centuries, but you can find Catholic quotes praising women or viewing them equal to men too among the ECFs, not only about glorious Mary, or such as this sampling:

It is true that in the Church there is an order of deaconesses, but not for being a priestess, nor for any kind of work of administration, but for the sake of the dignity of the female sex, either at the time of baptism or of examining the sick or suffering, so that the naked body of a female may not be seen by men administering sacred rites, but by the deaconess. (St. Epiphanius, Against Heresies ca 374 A.D.)

[F]or in the compound nature of man we may behold a part of each of the natures I have mentioned—of the Divine, the rational and intelligent element, which does not admit the distinction of male and female; of the irrational, our bodily form and structure, divided into male and female: for each of these elements is certainly to be found in all that partakes of human life. (Gregory of Nyssa, On the Making of Man, ca 380)

When therefore you see an harlot tempting you, say, My body is not mine, but my wife’s. The same also let the woman say to those who would undermine her chastity, My body is not mine, but my husband’s. (John Chrysostom, Homily 19 on 1 Corinthians, ca 400)

For this expression marks the multitude of their sins, and their state of disorder and confusion; led away with various lusts. He does not accuse nature, for it is not women simply, but such women as these, that he blames. (John Chrysostom, Homily 8 on 2 Timothy, ca 400)

How is this? A woman again is honored and proclaimed victorious! Again are we men put to shame. Or rather, we are not put to shame only, but have even an honor conferred upon us. For an honor we have, in that there are such women among us, but we are put to shame, in that we men are left so far behind by them. But if we come to know whence it comes, that they are so adorned, we too shall speedily overtake them. Whence then is their adorning? Let both men and women listen. It is not from bracelets, or from necklaces, nor from their eunuchs either, and their maid-servants, and gold-broidered dresses, but from their toils in behalf of the truth. (St. John Chrysostom, Homily 31 on Romans, ca 400)

Unto the modern era, such as Pope Leo XIII’s 1880 encyclical Arcanum on marriage. 😉 And certainly JP2’s Theology of the Body speaks with very high praise of womanhood and the mutual companionship and relation of men and women.
And From what quarter, too, did it, being a beast, obtain information regarding the injunction of God to the man given to him alone, and in secret, not even the woman herself being aware of it? Why also did it not prefer to make its attack upon the man instead of the woman? And if you say that it attacked her as being the weaker of the two, , on the contrary, she was the stronger, since she appears to have been the helper of the man in the transgression of the commandment. For she did by herself alone resist the serpent, and it was after holding out for a while and making opposition that she ate of the tree, being circumvented by craft; whereas Adam, making no fight whatever, nor refusal, partook of the fruit handed to him by the woman, which is an indication of the utmost imbecility and effeminacy of mind. And the woman indeed, having been vanquished in the contest by a demon, is deserving of pardon; but Adam shall deserve none, for he was worsted by a woman—he who, in his own person, had received the command from God. (Irenaeus, Fragments, 14, ca 190)
See also dmar198’s posts in this thread, starting with post #7. There are MANY references there that show how the Church was a pioneer in advancing the cause of women.
 
And secondly, I would ask this feminist, “Hypothetically, even if all your quotes are accurate, they were made centuries ago. What cause have you for rejecting the Church today?”

What is her answer? Is she arguing that the Church teaches some sort of deficiency of women? Where in the Catechism might she have a problem? If she argues for a female priesthood, is she able to do so on the theological grounds of a priest as bridegroom acting in persona Christi, the male, incarnate God-Man? Or is she only able to argue on a secular level as if the priesthood was just another profession?

I guess my point is that I would insist she demonstrate what actual Catholic Magisterial teaching has she a problem with, and then I would give a theological explanation from there.
 
I have a feminist family member who sent me an article about misogynist views of early Church Fathers. How do I answer them? I know that the Catholic Church values women and I know that just because someone is a Church Father, it doesn’t make them infallible. But how should I answer them? I personally do not understand idealists who get impatient towards people for not being imperfect. Thoughts?
I have yet to see one thing from the Church that truly shows misogynist views. I believe that most of the supposed misogynist attitudes of society from the time before Christ until 19th century are really due to feminists viewing prior conditions and viewing them through the conditions for women today.

Technology has GREATLY changed the role of women.

For example: unless the family was wealthy and had servants / slaves, women spent the entire day running the household. They would raise the children, kill the food, prep the food for cooking, clean the house, etc. This would last all day. Preparing dinner used to take several hours each day. Not to mention they were (unless they had already gone through menopause) were often pregnant.

Now some feminists would be “see, they were being kept at home to be baby factories!” But the truth is that (1) there was no contraception (2) understandings of NFP was limited or non existent (3) plus economics often dictated that the more children the better.

Unlike industrial and service based economies, in agricultural economies (which was pretty much the whole world before the industrial revolution) the more kids you have the better. Kids would help around the house and help take care of the animals, go hunting, raise crops, etc. And if you lived in a town, they could go out and make money for the family.

Plus the mortality rate for children was pretty high. Many families lost children to disease, etc. So while the mother wasn’t conscientiously replacing dead children, in a way the were.

Then, not to mention there was no baby formula. So if a mother wasn’t pregnant, she may have been nursing. Only rich families with servants or slaves had wet nurses.

So: if a women were often pregnant and/or often nursing it would make economic sense for her to work around the house while the husband was out in the farm or doing physical labor. A pregnant woman simply could not be expected to preform hard, physical labor. She would lose the baby. So the man going out to work and the woman staying home was a pure product of biology.

Enter the 20th Century: What changed? Refrigerators meant that food could be stored longer. Electric & Gas Ovens and stoves meant that cooking over a fire was WAY easier, you didn’t need to work at keep a fire going with wood. Neighborhood delis and grocery stores made food a lot easier (plus easier to get to because of cars!). Mandatory schooling for children. The invention of baby formula. Washing Machines and Dryers… Dishwashers too!

All of these things changed the requirements of women’s job at home. It was no longer as rigorous as it once was. PLUS, as society became more industrial and service based, it started to become more economical to have less children. So if a woman only had two kids who were in school all day and it only took her 45 minutes or less to cook dinner… and could keep the house clean by investing 15-20 minutes each day at minor cleaning touch ups… and maybe 1 or 2 hours a week doing laundry (which used to take a few hours each day).

The role of a woman at home changed DRASTICALLY. And I personally believe that Hollywood of the 1950s, 60s, 70s and 80s embellished the “misogynist” of the past due to the very real misogynist views of the early and mid 20th century, which I believe came about because women were not busting their butts has hard as they used to in the centuries before due to the new technologies. So in the 20th century, women were seen as frail and fairer, probably more more so than ever before.

Finally, what about voting? Well, let’s keep a few things in mind:
  1. voting is pretty much a modern re-invention.
  2. when American was founded, only property owners were allowed to vote, so there were many men (slave or not) who could not vote
  3. in the grand scheme of history, American women received the right to vote within one lifetime of freed slaves and in reality were voting before many Black men in the south.
  4. I think it’s also makes sense that women received the right to vote once technology had already begun to make their lives easier, where they began to have time to think about issues outside the home. Without the new technology, only rich women would have time to think about issues outside the home. The rest were too busy being mothers and running their homesteads.
I don’t think there is one single thing that took place before the 20th century that can’t be explained based on the truths of how hard life used to be. Were there abuses, of course. There will always be abuse, we are a fallen people. But does that mean that society used to be misogynist? Nope.

I pray this is helpful.

BTW - to any feminists out there: I have no problem with women working. I have no problem with women making more money then men, etc. The only thing I have issue with is when mothers AND/OR fathers put material wealth, status and possessions before the well being of their children. Does that mean that one parent should stay home? No. Both parents can work and still do a great job as parents. But each family is different. Some can do it and some can’t. So don’t judge my wife because she says home (I actually wanted her to keep working, but it was her choice to stay home when my oldest child was born)

God Bless!
 
I have a feminist family member who sent me an article about misogynist views of early Church Fathers. How do I answer them? I know that the Catholic Church values women and I know that just because someone is a Church Father, it doesn’t make them infallible. But how should I answer them? I personally do not understand idealists who get impatient towards people for not being imperfect. Thoughts?
I recommend the following articles:

The Catholic Church and Women’s Equality: A Timeline
historyandapologetics.com/2015/02/catholic-history-womens-equality.html

Resources for Studying the Mothers of the Church
historyandapologetics.com/2015/03/resources-for-studying-mothers-of-church.html
 
First I might respond with this old post…And From what quarter, too, did it, being a beast, obtain information regarding the injunction of God to the man given to him alone, and in secret, not even the woman herself being aware of it? Why also did it not prefer to make its attack upon the man instead of the woman? And if you say that it attacked her as being the weaker of the two, , on the contrary, she was the stronger, since she appears to have been the helper of the man in the transgression of the commandment. For she did by herself alone resist the serpent, and it was after holding out for a while and making opposition that she ate of the tree, being circumvented by craft; whereas Adam, making no fight whatever, nor refusal, partook of the fruit handed to him by the woman, which is an indication of the utmost imbecility and effeminacy of mind. And the woman indeed, having been vanquished in the contest by a demon, is deserving of pardon; but Adam shall deserve none, for he was worsted by a woman—he who, in his own person, had received the command from God. (Irenaeus, Fragments, 14, ca 190)
See also dmar198’s posts in this thread, starting with post #7. There are MANY references there that show how the Church was a pioneer in advancing the cause of women.

Nice- thanks!
 
It was a Catholic university that was the first in the world to award a college degree to a woman and the first in the world to award a woman with a Ph.D. Also, the Church is collectively a She. And, in Catholic teaching, the Virgin Mary, although a human like us, is greater than all the Popes, greater than all other saints, and even greater than all the angels in Heaven. In fact, Catholicism is the only Christian religion that has a Queen of Heaven. And Catholics often get criticized for this by fundamentalists who mistakenly believe that Catholics put the Virgin Mary above God.

See:
Elena Lucrezia Cornaro Piscopia
 
And secondly, I would ask this feminist, “Hypothetically, even if all your quotes are accurate, they were made centuries ago. What cause have you for rejecting the Church today?”

What is her answer? Is she arguing that the Church teaches some sort of deficiency of women? Where in the Catechism might she have a problem? If she argues for a female priesthood, is she able to do so on the theological grounds of a priest as bridegroom acting in persona Christi, the male, incarnate God-Man? Or is she only able to argue on a secular level as if the priesthood was just another profession?

I guess my point is that I would insist she demonstrate what actual Catholic Magisterial teaching has she a problem with, and then I would give a theological explanation from there.
You are a modern Catholic who only accepts things that are from modernists?
The entire Catholic Faith was set in stone centuries ago, yet that seems irrelevant to you today?
 
I don’t think the priesthood is the only thing that causes people to realize it’s a non topic.

Maybe men tend to think that the priesthood is the highest role.
 
Mary is the only female that is revered among muslims and catholics.

She was pregnant at the age of twelve.
Twelve.
!2 years old and pregnant. Thank you God.
 
You are a modern Catholic who only accepts things that are from modernists?
The entire Catholic Faith was set in stone centuries ago, yet that seems irrelevant to you today?
No, but the people who are making the arguments that they do are viewing the Church with a secular eye that would have to come to that conclusion. That was my point. What do they care what the Church said 100s of years ago if the Church practices no discrimination today? What is their excuse to reject the Church of today? What do you think, StrawberryJam?

For my part, I do not see any undignified comments throughout the centuries as anything that carried through any doctrinal teaching. On the contrary, the Church’s “neither male nor female” teaching from St. Paul was a pioneering moment in that women are as welcome to the faith as men. This is profound when we recognize that Christ came incarnate as a human in part to have solidarity with humanity (Hebrews 2). The teaching even separated Christianity from other religions.
 
No, but the people who are making the arguments that they do are viewing the Church with a secular eye that would have to come to that conclusion. That was my point. What do they care what the Church said 100s of years ago if the Church practices no discrimination today? What is their excuse to reject the Church of today? What do you think, StrawberryJam?

For my part, I do not see any undignified comments throughout the centuries as anything that carried through any doctrinal teaching. On the contrary, the Church’s “neither male nor female” teaching from St. Paul was a pioneering moment in that women are as welcome to the faith as men. This is profound when we recognize that Christ came incarnate as a human in part to have solidarity with humanity (Hebrews 2). The teaching even separated Christianity from other religions.
I am a defender of the Church when the Church gets it right and in the specific case of priesthood I defend her. In the case of when a girl should become pregnant, I guess I have a harder time defending the beliefs. She was just twelve years old for crying out loud.
 
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