Civil Annulment?

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AnneBOK

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If a person who is Catholic and not free to marry due to a previous divorce not having a church annulment, marries a non Catholic who has never been married in a civil ceremony and the marriage is later legally annulled due to the fact that the marriage was never consumated, do they (the Catholic) still need to get a church annulment (in order to re-marry)? Does the fact that the state says the marriage never happened, the marriage was civil, and the fact that there were no marital relations etc. mean no church annulment is necessary since it “never really happened”? :confused:

ANne
 
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AnneBOK:
If a person who is Catholic and not free to marry due to a previous divorce not having a church annulment, marries a non Catholic who has never been married in a civil ceremony and the marriage is later legally annulled due to the fact that the marriage was never consumated, do they (the Catholic) still need to get a church annulment (in order to re-marry)? Does the fact that the state says the marriage never happened, the marriage was civil, and the fact that there were no marital relations etc. mean no church annulment is necessary since it “never really happened”? :confused:

ANne
Anne,

The second marriage was not valid in the eyes of the Church and there is no need for an annulment. That is how I understand it, someone please correct me if I am wrong. However, you first statement of the paragraph stated that the Catholic person was married and divorced “not free to marry” will need to receive an annulment for that marriage.

Make sense?
 
I think that you answered your own question, but you don’t state the circumstances of the initial marriage by the Catholic person.

You have to start at square one; the first marriage must have a decree of nullity before one is free to marry again. I don’t think that the second marriage is the root issue, even if it was invalid civilly.
 
Thank you both for your replies. I do appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut. I am quite aware that the first mariage that ended in divorce needs a church annulment…Just wondering about the civil annulment. When I heard about this one myself, I was not sure how to respond which is why I asked the question here.

Anne
 
Mirror Mirror:
The second marriage was not valid in the eyes of the Church and there is no need for an annulment.
The second marriage would still require an annulment, but the process is somewhat different. Anything that looks like a marriage needs to be investigated; however, the investigation is easier when it’s obvious that one of the parties wasn’t free to marry.
 
Ok - two completely different answers…I have now passed this onto “Ask an appologist”…We will se what comes up there. Thank you all for your (name removed by moderator)ut!
Anne
 
Obviously, an anullment would need to find that the first marriage of the Catholic was invalid before a marriage could take place.

As for the second marriage, it will probably be investigated either way…but the process will be different based on some things.

Was the non-catholic and/or their previous spouse baptized or not?

If both of them were, it could still have been a valid sacramental marriage (non-Catholic christians are not bound to the Catholic marriage rite)…if it was not consumatted, the Petrine Priveledge may invoked to dissolve it if the argument can be made that it should be dissolved. This could be pretty hard as it involves proving it is not consumated and petitioning the Pope.

If one was baptized and the other wasn’t, it could still be considered a valid natural marriage…though probably not sacramental. Theoretically, only a valid, consumated, sacramental marriage is entirely indissolvable by anything but death. Under natural law, ending a purely natural marriage is hypothetically possible; the Mosaic law allowed divorce of its purely legal (non-sacramental) marriages, after all. But the Church usually does not (in fact, I think never) recognize the dissolution of even purely natural marriages because of Jesus’s strong words against any divorce, and so for a person non-sacramentally, but still validly, married before, the Church still seeks to establish that the first marriage was invalid before allowing them to remarry a Christian (as for a non-Christian previously married to a non-Christian marrying another non-Christian, the Church doesnt get involved…ending purely natural marriage is theoretically possible so the Church doesnt speak on the issue if all the parties are non-baptized, but in allowing baptized people to marry the Church never assumes any valid marriage, sacramental or not, has been ended unless the spouse dies or it declares the first marriage invalid), however, though again since it was not consumated, the Petrine priviledge could be invoked…and probably much easier than in the first case because it was only a natural marriage and the person wants to marry baptized Catholic.

If niether was baptized it should be pretty easy. Again, while ending a purely natural valid marriage is hypothetically possible, if someone previously in a valid though non-sacramental marriage wants to be married to a Christian…the Church requires invalidity of the first marriage to be established just to be safe and to encourage even purely natural marriages to stay together, as was the Creators original design. But establishing that purely civil marriage that wasnt consumatted was invalid should not be hard. And even in the rare case it is found valid (although not sacramental), because it was not consumatted the Petrine priviledge could be invoked. And while this involves petitioning the Vatican…because it was two non-baptized people in a civil ceremony…it should be relatively easy to obtain.

But there is an easier way if niether was baptized at the time. Under the Pauline Priviledge, if one of the parties gets baptized, then they may remarry a new baptized partner because a sacramental valid marriage supersedes a merely natural valid marriage…and their natural old marriage is dissolved by the very act of the new sacramental marriage taking place. But under canon law they must ask if the old partner wants to get baptized and have their marriage sacramentalized and blessed first. But in this case, since that first partner already agreed to get a civil annulment, that shouldnt be a problem.
 
AnneBOK,

I’m a canonist assigned to full time tribunal ministry.

There is insufficient information given to determine how the investigations of these two marriages will need to proceed, and it is not useful to speculate nor ask the kinds of questions that will shed light on that in a public forum. Those questions can really only be asked properly by a tribunal or someone who is familiar with the matrimonial law of the Church. They are not always the most obvious questions, or the ones asked here.

I strongly advise you, assuming you raise these questions from a personal basis, to contact your parish priest.

All that can be said is that a civil annulment is insufficient to establish freedom to marry in the Catholic Church. Whether a marriage is consummated or not does not in itself pertain to the presumption of its validity. Other factors will be involved.

Both marriages must be investigated in some way by a competent Church authority, normally the tribunal. Speaking with your priest is the safest way to proceed.

God bless you.
 
Thank you for your reply - I do very much appreciate it. As of yesterday I have spoken to my parish priest and I am getting the documentation necessary to bring the matter before the marriage tribunal.

Anne
 
I would like to ask a question about my own marriage (sorry for cutting in) I was brought up a jehovah’s witness and became Catholic three years ago. My husband of 18 years was brought up Protestant but prides himself in being a heathen. We had a civil ceremony. My Priest said that I am not married in the eyes of the Church but a marriage exists. Can anyone explain? The reason I ask is because I feel I am being denied the fullness of marriage as I never received it as a sacrament and the only way I could get my husband to church is to chain him up like Hannibal Lectre. I have two sons who are now being raised Catholic.
 
If a person who is Catholic and not free to marry due to a previous divorce not having a church annulment, marries a non Catholic who has never been married in a civil ceremony and the marriage is later legally annulled due to the fact that the marriage was never consumated, do they (the Catholic) still need to get a church annulment (in order to re-marry)?
ANne
in a case like this where one of the parties has been or attempted marriage more than once, the circumstances of each marriage must be adjudicated, beginning with the earliest. So the for a proper investigation the marriage tribunal of the diocese of the Catholic party requires all the facts on all marriages by each party to each marriage. The civil action does not necessarily affect the valididty of the marriage although the grounds for it may shed light on it.
 
Just from a theoritical standpoint I think it might be a good idea for some of the posters to revisit tha Pauline and Petrine Previledges. They are not so easily obtained as seems to be implied.
 
Just from a theoritical standpoint I think it might be a good idea for some of the posters to revisit tha Pauline and Petrine Previledges. They are not so easily obtained as seems to be implied.
Would you be so kind as to go into a little more detail with your answer?
Thanks -
Anne
 
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