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DeniseNY
Guest
It doesn’t bother me, either.
Would changing the pronouns to gender-neutral not be tantamount to making a statement implying that the Bible has been written in a way that is predjudiced against women and therefore had to change?If referring to human beings gender neutral language would not change the meaning unless it was only intended to refer to one sex.
I don’t think so.Would changing the pronouns to gender-neutral not be tantamount to making a statement implying that the Bible has been written in a way that is predjudiced against women and therefore had to change?
Why do we use “people”.in the Gloria and “men” in the Creed?No need for gender neutral/inclusive language. We all understand what the prayers mean by “men” and “mankind”.
I get that. What I don’t get is preferring non inclusive language.No need for gender neutral/inclusive language. We all understand what the prayers mean by “men” and “mankind”.
When did we stop referring to mankind? Will the word human be the next target?The thing is that language changes. We no longer refer to mankind or whatever. Using sexist language is just another way of making the Church seem irrelevant.
What’s bad about gender neutral language in and of itself?The issue, I think, is that the call for the use of ‘gender-inclusive’ language sometimes seems to be laced with sociopolitical ideology.
There’s nothing bad about it of itself, but nor is it automatically good of itself. I think one of the issues is that the push for increased use of it is bound up in socio-political ideology. I think there is sometimes the implication that to use language that isn’t gender neutral is to somehow be unfairly discriminatory against women.What’s bad about gender neutral language in and of itself?
I know your question wasn’t addressed to me, but to me, the language isn’t non-inclusive. That’s why I (and I suspect many others) don’t have an issue with it.I get that. What I don’t get is preferring non inclusive language.