Contraception for womans health is continence required?

[AUGUSTINE1102]

I got into it with a Catholic the other week about contraception. She said due to a medical condition she has she takes contraception to regulate this condition. I can understand that. My question: Can such a person, if married, still engage in the marital act knowing the risks and consequences of abortifacient chemicals? It would seem that whether married or unmarried that the consequences and risks of possible abortion of newly conceived person is the same. Thank you!

 

[TheIttyBitty]

I’ll point out that different chemicals and implements do different things. Not all types are abortifacients…

 

[TheLittleLady]

Apologize to her, you were mistaken. Women can take hormonal medication to treat medical conditions and still engage in the marital act.

 

[Anesti33]

Your mistake is understandable. She should not be referring to the medication as “contraception” when it is not being used with the intent to prevent pregnancy.

 

[CTBcin]

She’s actually taking hormones to treat a medical condition and the contraceptive effect of that is an unintended side effect. She does not need to abstain from sex with her husband while on those meds.

Otherwise known as the Principle of Double Effect.

 

[1Lord1Faith]

You are confronting a woman who is presumably not your wife about her sex life with her husband? Do you need for someone to go on about why this is wrong, or do you have some kind of responsibility for this woman?

 

[1ke]

Can such a person, if married, still engage in the marital act knowing the risks and consequences of abortifacient chemicals?

Yes.

See Humanae Vitae regarding therapeutic treatments.

She is not “taking contraception”. She is taking hormones. The more precise in terminology, the better this can be understood.

 

[1ke]

I got into it with a Catholic the other week about contraception.

Why did you “get into it” about this woman’s medical situation?