Contraception use during fornication

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I believe it is nevertheless true that HV refers only to a marital context. Yes of course we hold that contraception is an intrinsic evil but Paul VI placed his teaching document in the marital context.

Does the context matter? If a woman is about to be forcibly violated and begs the rapist to use a condom, is she guilty of any evil? I’m inclined to say no, because what is about to happen is a violation, an aggression an unwelcome attack and keeping any part of the man away from her is a proper and just act. It is a self defense, no different than the treatment she would receive in a Catholic hospital after the rape.

What if the rapist chooses of his own volition (and intending only to spare the woman in some sense) to use a condom? Has the evil now increased? I am inclined to say no.

Now what of the case of two person unmarried but choosing mutually to engage in sexual relations?
 
A few years ago, there was some discussion on CAF as to whether a woman who had been raped could try to avoid becoming pregnant by her attacker so long as she had not ovulated and there was no chance a baby had already been conceived or whether such an attempt (by douching, trying to wash away sperm, taking a medication to postpone ovulation, etc) would be sinful. What do you think?
Certainly the USCCB have guidelines which say she may receive hospital treatment directed to preventing a conception but not killing a baby.
 
"Given this teaching, little wonder the Bible has grave condemnations against both fornication, “carnal union between an unmarried man and an unmarried woman” (Catechism, #2353), and adultery, “when two partners, of whom at least one is married to another party, have sexual relations—even transient ones . . . " (Catechism, #2381). Jesus said, “Wicked designs come from the deep recesses of the heart: acts of fornication, theft, murder, adulterous conduct, greed, maliciousness, deceit, sensuality, envy, blasphemy, arrogance, and obtuse spirit. All these evils come from within and render a man impure” (Mark 7:21-23; cf. also Matthew 15:19). St. Paul warned, “Can you not realize that the unholy will not fall heir to the kingdom of God? Do not deceive your selves: no fornicators, idolaters, or adulterers, no sexual perverts, thieves, misers or drunkards, no slanderers, or robbers will inherit God’s kingdom” (I Corinthians 6:9-10). In the last judgment scene depicted in the Book of Revelation, God said, “As for the cowards and traitors to the faith, the depraved and murderers, the fornicators and sorcerers, the idol-worshipers and deceivers of every sort—their lot is the fiery pool of burning sulphur, the second death!” (Revelation 21:8). God’s upholding of the sacredness of marital love is clearly evidenced in the blatant condemnation of the sins against it.”
 
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nodito:
A few years ago, there was some discussion on CAF as to whether a woman who had been raped could try to avoid becoming pregnant by her attacker so long as she had not ovulated and there was no chance a baby had already been conceived or whether such an attempt (by douching, trying to wash away sperm, taking a medication to postpone ovulation, etc) would be sinful. What do you think?
Certainly the USCCB have guidelines which say she may receive hospital treatment directed to preventing a conception but not killing a baby.
Right. Because it would not be the sin of contraception outside of the marital embrace.
 
Because it would not be the sin of contraception outside of the marital embrace.
It would be self-defense, because of what is happening. It is that which it is, rather than the particular thing that it is not that is the determining factor. So, no, you can’t draw the broad conclusion you seek from the rape case alone.
 
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Fornication is the gravest sin you can think of? I can think of a few that have the edge. Google Ian Brady or the Holocaust.
Fornication is grave matter, as in mortal sin, that destroys your relationship with God and puts you on the Highway to Hell. I’m not making this up, it is straight from the Catechism.

Saying “Oh but the Holocaust was way worse” is not going to get you off the hook with the Big G. Sorry!
 
I think I disagree with your conclusion but could you elaborate on the “that which it is vs that which it is not” portion of your post? The act of taking a drug to prevent ovulation in order to avoid pregnancy would normally be considered the sin of contraception. Do you maintain that contraception is sometimes justified ( in cases of self defense) or that this act is not contraception when a woman has been raped?
 
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I think I disagree with your conclusion but could you elaborate on the “that which it is vs that which it is not” portion of your post?
I say post-rape treatment is not contraception because it is an act of self defense. You say it is not contraception because the parties are not married. I am certainly right - you might possibly be right if marriage is the essential ingredient - the very matter in debate.

May a couple who chooses to live together permanently, in a sexual relationship, without martiage, contracept?
Do you maintain that contraception is sometimes justified ( in cases of self defense) or that this act is not contraception when a woman has been raped?
The question incorporates ambiguity. Is the word “contraception” a reference to the physical or the moral meaning of the physical? Sometimes only the context makes clear our meaning. I usually mean the moral meaning - that which the law forbids.
 
Certain members of the clergy do not know there CCC. I was told by several priest that it is a mortal sin to use any means of stopping procreation. It seems right on one hand I do know some Catholics that plan intercourse around the women cycle. But as you stated in CCC 2368 the morality of the behavior does not depend on sincere intention and evaluation of motivates alone. Thank God bless
 
It is a Mortal Sin. Mortal Sin is gravest grave sin whether we are talking about murders or fornication. There are not degrees of mortal sin. I’m sorry if I was unclear about that. I was thinking in terms of comparing it to venial sin.

My point was that once you have already done the worst you can do by committing a mortal sin, it seems like you could at least try to mitigate the harm you might cause.
 
May a couple who chooses to live together permanently, in a sexual relationship, without marriage, contracept?
I would be interested in the view of others on the above - may the couple, without committing further evil, agree to use condoms?
 
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Rau:
May a couple who chooses to live together permanently, in a sexual relationship, without marriage, contracept?
I would be interested in the view of others on the above - may the couple, without committing further evil, agree to use condoms?
Hasn’t that been what this entire thread is about?
 
Thank you for all your responses. I’ve read through most of them and have learned that there is no official Church teaching on this matter, therefore I suppose there isn’t really any answer to my original question.

Some thoughts:

I think we all agree that fornication is a sin. So I guess it makes sense that since sex outside of marriage shouldn’t be happening in the first place, it’s no longer important whether the act is ordered toward procreation or not.

On the other hand, God still creates people through the act of fornication, even though fornication is sinful. So, wouldn’t it still be a sin to frustrate the act that leads to procreation (sex), even if it’s outside of marriage?

Fornicating while using contraception is a sin. The question is, is it one sin or two?
 
To me, that aspect alone does not alter the moral calculation.
By which you mean no more evil attaches to their sexual acts by virtue of contraception?

I don’t find that an untenable position.
 
There are magisterial sources condemning contraception outside of marriage. Casti Connubii, 55, which teaches in the words of Augustine, “Intercourse even with one’s legitimate wife is unlawful and wicked where the conception of the offspring is prevented.” The expression “even with one’s legitimate wife” indicates that it is immoral regardless of whether one is married or not.

Familiaris Consortio, n. 30, which condemns governments distributing contraception to anyone, not merely to the married.

And there are many magisterial statements condemning contraception, with no mention of marriage. For example: Pontifical Council for the Family: “The artificial methods of birth control as well as sterilization do not respect the human person of a woman and man because they eliminate or impede fertility, which is an integral part of the person.” (The Ethical and Pastoral Dimensions of Population Trends, n. 76) Contraception is condemned not only because it contradicts the purpose of the marital act, but also because it contradicts the nature of the human person, since the generative faculty is an integral part of the person.

And Catholic hospitals are forbidden to cooperate with contraception, even when the couple is unmarried. Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith: “Any cooperation whatsoever, institutionally-approved or tolerated, in actions which are in themselves (that is, by their nature and condition) ordered toward a contraceptive end, as well as any that impede the natural result of the sexual act [actuum sexualium] allowing it to be subjected to deliberate sterilization, is absolutely forbidden.” (Reply of the Sacred Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith on Sterilization in Catholic Hospitals, Quaecumque Sterilizatio, March 13, 1975, AAS 68 (1976) 738-740; DOCUMENTA 25)

The above document says “sexual act” not marital act, and is applied to all types of contraception dispensed by a hospital, even if the person is unmarried.
 
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