B
byzmelkite
Guest
This is a rather complicated situation but I need help sorting it out. My wife and I sold our home to a couple about a year ago, they were friends of ours. We owed a certain amount on the home and my wife verbally offered to sell it to them for about $4000 less because they were friends and they had horrible credit and we weren’t sure that they would be able to get a loan. Apparently, by the time they got a mortgage and got the papers for us to sign, they had reappraised the house at about $30,000 higher than our appraisal (we question whether it is a legitimate appraisal) and had gotten a mortgage about $15000 above the listed price. When I signed the papers I did not realize all of this and had I known the information in time, I would never have agreed to verbally sell the house at a price lower than the actual price on the written contract. The question I have is this:
Given that we have no legal obligation to pay them approximately $3000 due the verbal agreement my wife made, do we have a moral obligation to give the money when we believe that information was not disclosed to us in a timely manner ( and to me not until about last week which is a year after the sale) which would have changed our negotiations? On top of this, they have been trying to manipulate us into giving them money to pay taxes and they have tried to get us to let them write off interest we paid on the house when it was ours. We’ve have found out in the process that they have been in financial and legal trouble in the past and are untrustworthy. Are we then dispensed from the obligation of my wife’s verbal agreement? Thanks.
Given that we have no legal obligation to pay them approximately $3000 due the verbal agreement my wife made, do we have a moral obligation to give the money when we believe that information was not disclosed to us in a timely manner ( and to me not until about last week which is a year after the sale) which would have changed our negotiations? On top of this, they have been trying to manipulate us into giving them money to pay taxes and they have tried to get us to let them write off interest we paid on the house when it was ours. We’ve have found out in the process that they have been in financial and legal trouble in the past and are untrustworthy. Are we then dispensed from the obligation of my wife’s verbal agreement? Thanks.