Council of chalcedon canon 28

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Hello. As a catholic i was always told that rome had primacy because of its founders peter and paul…but why does canon 28 state that it was because of the royal city as in the capital of the empire?

"For the Fathers rightly granted privileges to the throne of old Rome, because it was the royal city. "
 
The Fathers that wrote this canon wrote it that way with that reasoning in order to bolster Constantinople. The Papal legates at the council vehemently protested once they heard about this proposed canon.

Pope Leo Rejected the canon and the Patriarch of Constantinople later apologized.
 
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From the New Advent article:
At the closing of the sessions the council wrote a letter to Pope Leo I, in which the Fathers informed him of what had been done; thanked him for the exposition of Christian Faith contained in his dogmatic epistle; spoke of his legates as having presided over them in his name; and asked for the ratification of the disciplinary matters enacted, particularly canon 28. This letter was handed to the papal legates, who departed for Rome soon after the last session of the council. Similar letters were written to Pope Leo in December by Emperor Marcian and Anatolius of Constantinople. In reply Pope Leo protested most energetically against canon xxviii and declared it null and void as being against the prerogatives of Bishops of Alexandria and Antioch, and against the decrees of the Council of Nicaea. Like protests were contained in the letters written 22 May, 452, to Emperor Marcian, Empress Pulcheria, and Anatolius of Constantinople. Otherwise the pope ratified the Acts of the Council of Chalcedon, but only inasmuch as they referred to matters of faith. This approval was contained in letters written 21 March, 453, to the bishops who took part in the council; hence the Council of Chalcedon, at least as to the first six sessions, became an ecumenical synod, and was considered as such by all Christians, both in the time of Poe Leo and after him.
 
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