R
Reformed_Rob
Guest
Ok,
Here’s your Catholic claim, in brief but I think accurate words:
Psalm 32 is referring to David’s repentance and forgiveness of the sin of adultery and murder (from Nathan’s rebuke in II Samuel 12). David is quoted by Paul in Romans 4:6,7 in the context of justification by faith, rightousness being reckoned by faith. You gather from this that Paul is referring to David being “Justified” in Psalm 32 when that repentance was written/sung about.
I say, in opposition, that it was not just as David also speaks in the way that you say it is, ie. that point in time. That does not mean that Paul was taking Psalm 32:1,2 out of context, rather he was stating that it is a fact that God justifies the ungodly, and blessed are those whose lawless deeds have been forgiven. Yes, David was forgiven when he did confess his sin and repent (II Samuel 12:13), but no, we should not take that as a time when David was imputed with righteousness. You say it was specific, David was however, speaking in general terms in Ps. 32, and Paul is using it to prove a point not out of context of the Psalm.
I don’t want to get into discussing Abraham. You got me there, you win!! Honestly, but I think you cannot use David the same way to prove the Catholic view.
What do you say? Please, I’m willing to hear more on this.
Here’s your Catholic claim, in brief but I think accurate words:
Psalm 32 is referring to David’s repentance and forgiveness of the sin of adultery and murder (from Nathan’s rebuke in II Samuel 12). David is quoted by Paul in Romans 4:6,7 in the context of justification by faith, rightousness being reckoned by faith. You gather from this that Paul is referring to David being “Justified” in Psalm 32 when that repentance was written/sung about.
I say, in opposition, that it was not just as David also speaks in the way that you say it is, ie. that point in time. That does not mean that Paul was taking Psalm 32:1,2 out of context, rather he was stating that it is a fact that God justifies the ungodly, and blessed are those whose lawless deeds have been forgiven. Yes, David was forgiven when he did confess his sin and repent (II Samuel 12:13), but no, we should not take that as a time when David was imputed with righteousness. You say it was specific, David was however, speaking in general terms in Ps. 32, and Paul is using it to prove a point not out of context of the Psalm.
I don’t want to get into discussing Abraham. You got me there, you win!! Honestly, but I think you cannot use David the same way to prove the Catholic view.
What do you say? Please, I’m willing to hear more on this.